After the analysis of the Prelims Previous Year Questions of Polity 2023, it is clearly evident that UPSC is ever evolving in its style of questioning, the framing of statements and combination of options.
What is UPSC exactly expecting from the aspirants for Indian Polity Prelims?
Conceptual clarity, the essence of Constitution, bases of the Political System, complete knowledge of all the articles of Indian Constitution and contemporary issues in governance.
Here we provide authentic and foolproof solutions for 2023 Prelims Polity questions, with proper and holistic explanation of the answers. This will guide and aid the aspirants in appearing for upcoming Civil Services Examinations.
UPSC Polity Questions With Answer and Explanation 2023
01. In essence, what does Due Process of Law mean?
(a) The principle of natural justice
(b) The procedure established by law
(c) Fair application of law
(d) Equality before law
Answer: a
Explanation:
The word ‘due’ in this clause is interpreted to mean ‘just’, ‘proper’ or ‘reasonable’, according to the judicial view. Thus Due process of law in essence is natural justice.
In the case of Kartar Singh v. State of Punjab court held that the procedure contemplated by Article 21 is that the procedure must be “right, just and fair” and not arbitrary, fanciful or oppressive. In order that the procedure is right, just and fair, it should conform to the principle of natural justice, that is, “fair play in action”.
Hence option a is correct.
02. Consider the following statements:
Statement- I: In India, prisons are managed by State Governments with their own rules and regulations for the day-to-day administration of prisons.
Statement- II : In India, prisons are governed by the Prisons Act, 1894 which expressly kept the subject of prisons in the control of Provincial Governments.
Which one of the following is correct in respect of the above statements?
(a) Both Statement- I and Statement- II are correct and Statement- II is the correct explanation for Statement- I
(b) Both Statement- I and Statement- II are correct and Statement- II is not the correct explanation for Statement- I
(c) Statement- I is correct but Statement- II is incorrect
(d) Statement- I is incorrect but Statement- II is correct
Answer: a
Explanation:
Prison is a State subject under List II of the Seventh Schedule in the Constitution. The management and administration of Prisons fall exclusively in the domain of the State Governments, and is governed by the Prisons Act, 1894 and the Prison Manuals of the respective State Governments. Thus, States have the primary role, responsibility and power to change the current prison laws, rules and regulations.
Hence, statement 1 is correct.
THE PRISONS ACT, 1894 – — In this Act— (1) “prison” means any jail or place used permanently or temporarily under the general or special orders of a State Government for the detention of prisoners and includes all lands and buildings appurtenant thereto, but does not include—
(a) any place for the confinement of prisoners who are exclusively in the custody of the police;
(b) any place specially appointed by the State Government under section 541 of the Code of Criminal Procedure, 1882; or
(c) any place which has been declared by the State Government, by general or special order, to be a subsidiary jail:
Hence, statement 2 is correct and statement 2 correctly explains statement 1.
Hence, option a is correct.
03. Which one of the following statements best reflects the Chief purpose of the ‘Constitution’ of a country?
(a) It determines the objective for the making of necessary laws.
(b) It enables the creation of political offices and a government.
(c) It defines and limits the powers of government.
(d) It secures social justice, social equality and social security
Answer: c
Explanation:
The concept of constitutionalism is that of a polity goverened by or under a constitution that ordains essentially limited government and rule of law as opposed to arbitrary, authoritarian or totalitarian rule. Constitutional government , therefore should necessarily be democratic government. Also, constitutionalism is a natural concomitant of a written constitution is bound to define and delimit the power and function of various organs of the state and a government under a written constitution can only be limited government.
But, it is certainly conceivable that some countries (there have been many examples) may have written constitutions which are not really democratic. It can be said that they have constitution but not constitutionalism. also, there are instances where there is no written constitution but constitutionalism prevails.
Hence option c is correct.
04. In India, which one of the following Constitutional Amendments was widely believed to be enacted to overcome the judicial interpretations of the Fundamental Rights?
(a) 1st Amendment
(b) 42nd Amendment
(c) 44th Amendment
(d) 86th Amendment
Answer: a
Explanation:
The “STATEMENT OF OBJECTS AND REASONS” of 1st constitutional amendment bill, 1951 stated that:
- During the initial fifteen months of the working of the Constitution, certain difficulties had been brought to light by judicial decisions and pronouncements specially in regard to the chapter on fundamental rights.
- The citizen’s right to freedom of speech and expression guaranteed by article 19(1)(a) had been held by some courts to be so comprehensive as not to render a person culpable even if he advocates murder and other crimes of violence.
In other countries with written constitutions, freedom of speech and the press is not regarded as debarring the State from punishing or preventing abuse of this freedom.
- The citizen’s right to practise any profession or to carry on any occupation, trade or business conferred by article 19(1)(g) was subject to reasonable restrictions which the laws of the State may impose “in the interests of general public”.
While the words cited were comprehensive enough to cover any scheme of nationalisation which the State may undertake, it was desirable to place the matter beyond doubt by a clarificatory addition to article 19(6).
- Another article in regard to which unanticipated difficulties had arisen was article 31. The validity of agrarian reform measures passed by the State Legislatures in the last three years had, formed the subject matter of dilatory litigation, as a result of which the implementation of these important measures, affecting large numbers of people, has been held up. The Ninth Schedule was thus added to overcome these.
New provisions were inserted to secure the constitutional validity of zamindari abolition laws in general and certain specified State Acts in particular. The opportunity has been taken to propose a few minor amendments to other articles to remove difficulties that may arise.
- It is laid down in article 46 as a DPSP that the State should promote with special care the educational and economic interests of the weaker sections of the people and protect them from social injustice. In order that any special provision that the State may make for the educational, economic, or social advancement of any backward class of citizens may not be challenged on the ground of being discriminatory, it is proposed that article 15(3) should be suitably amplified.
Certain amendments in respect of articles dealing with the convening and proroguing of the sessions of Parliament have been found necessary and are also incorporated in this Bill. So also a few minor amendments in respect of articles 341, 342, 372 and 376.
Hence, the 1st amendment was enacted to overcome the difficulties that had risen by judicial interpretation of fundamental Rghts.
Hence option a is correct.
05. Consider the following organizations/bodies in India :
1. The National Commission for Backward Classes
2. The National Human Rights Commission
3. The National Law Commission
4. The National Consumer Disputes Redressal Commission
How many of the above are constitutional bodies?
(a) Only one
(b) Only two
(c) Only three
(d) All four
Answer: a
Explanation:
National Commission for Backward Classes (NCBC)
- NCBC is established on 14th August 1993
- It is a constitutional body under the Ministry of Social Justice and Empowerment.
- It was formed under the National Commission for Backward Classes Act, 1993.
National Human Rights Commission
- The National Human Rights Commission (NHRC) of India was established on 12 October, 1993.
- The statute under which it is established is the Protection of Human Rights Act (PHRA), 1993 as amended by the Protection of Human Rights (Amendment) Act, 2006.
National Law Commission
- Law Commission of India is a non-statutory body and is constituted by a notification of the Government of India, Ministry of Law & Justice, Department of Legal Affairs with a definite terms of reference to carry out research in the field of law and the Commission makes recommendations to the Government .
The National Consumer Disputes Redressal Commission
- The National Consumer Disputes Redressal Commission (NCDRC), India is a quasi-judicial commission in India which was set up in 1988 under the Consumer Protection Act of 1986.
- It is a statutory body set up under the Consumer Protection Act of 1986.
Hence National Commission for Backward Classes (NCBC) is the only Constitutional body and not others in given options.
Hence option a is correct.
06. Consider the following statements:
1. If the election of the President of India is declared void by the Supreme Court of India, all acts done by him/her in the performance of duties of his/her office of President before the date of decision become invalid.
2. Election for the post of the President of India can be postponed on the ground that some Legislative Assemblies have been dissolved and elections are yet to take place.
3. When a Bill is presented to the President of India, the Constitution prescribes time limits within which he/she has to declare his/her assent.
How many of the above statements are correct?
(a) Only one
(b) Only two
(c) All three
(d) None
Answer: d
Explanation:
Article 71(2)– If the election of a person as President or Vice-President is declared void by the Supreme Court, acts done by him in the exercise and performance of the powers and duties of the office of President or Vice-President, as the case may be, on or before the date of the decision of the Supreme Court shall not be invalidated by reason of that declaration.
Hence Statement 1 is incorrect.
Article 71(4)– The election of a person as President or Vice-President shall not be called in question on the ground of the existence of any vacancy for whatever reason among the members of the electoral college electing him. Election for the post of the President of India cannot be postponed on the ground that some Legislative Assemblies have been dissolved
Hence Statement 2 is incorrect.
Article 111: Assent to Bills– When a Bill has been passed by the Houses of Parliament, it shall be presented to the President, and the President shall declare either that he assents to the Bill, or that he withholds assent therefrom: Provided that the President may, as soon as possible after the presentation to him of a Bill for assent, return the Bill if it is not a Money Bill to the Houses with a message requesting that they will reconsider the Bill or any specified provisions thereof and, in particular, will consider the desirability of introducing any such amendments as he may recommend in his message, and when a Bill is so returned, the Houses shall reconsider the Bill accordingly, and if the Bill is passed again by the Houses with or without amendment and presented to the President for assent, the President shall not withhold assent therefrom. Therefore no time limit is mentioned in the Constitution to give assent to bills by President.
Hence Statement 3 is incorrect.
Hence option d is correct.
07. With reference to Finance Bill and Money Bill in the Indian Parliament, consider the following statements:
1. When the Lok Sabha transmits Finance bill to the Rajya Sabha, it can amend or reject the Bill.
2. When the Lok Sabha transmits Money Bill to the Rajya Sabha, it cannot amend or reject the Bill, it can only make recommendations.
3. In the case of disagreement between the Lok Sabha and the Rajya Sabha, there is no joint sitting for Money Bill, but a joint sitting becomes necessary for Finance Bill.
How many of the above statements are correct?
(a) Only one
(b) Only two
(c) All three
(d) None
Answer: b
Explanation:
The Finance Bill, which is introduced in Lok Sabha immediately after the presentation of the Budget by the Minister of Finance, is passed by Lok Sabha and transmitted to Rajya Sabha after the passing of the Appropriation Bill.
It is also certified as a Money Bill. Since the Finance bill is a money bill, Rajya Sabha has the power to recommend amendments in the Finance Bill but cannot reject the bill.
However, the Lok Sabha must accept or reject the recommendations. More than one Finance Bill may, however, be introduced during a financial year.
Rule 219 of the Rules of Procedure of Lok Sabha states: ‘Finance Bill’ means the Bill ordinarily introduced in each year to give effect to the financial proposals of the Government of India for the following financial year and includes a Bill to give effect to supplementary financial proposals for any period.
Hence, statement 1 is incorrect.
A Money Bill cannot be introduced in the Rajya Sabha. It can be introduced in the Lok Sabha only on the recommendation of the President. After a Money Bill has been passed by the Lok Sabha, it is passed on to the Rajya Sabha for its recommendations with a certificate by the Speaker that it is a Money Bill. The Rajya Sabha cannot reject a Money Bill nor can it recommend it by virtue of its own powers.
There is no provision for a joint sitting in case of a Money Bill; since a Finance Bill is a Money Bill, there is no joint sitting for a Finance bill also.
Hence, statement 2 is correct.
The constitution distinguishes between Money bills and Financial bills, Article 110 deals with Money bills and Article 117 deals with special provisions as to Financial Bills.
Financial Bills can be categorised into Category-A and Category-B:
Category-A Financial Bill: Those Bills which make provisions for any of the matters specified in Article 110 for the Money Bill. Such bills shall not be introduced or moved except on the recommendation of the President, and a Bill making such provision shall not be introduced in the Council of States (Such Bills are nothing but Money Bills).
Category- A Financial Bills do not solely contain the matters specified in Article 110 (Money bill) but other matters also. Category-A Financial Bills, if not being a Money Bills, the Rajya Sabha is fully empowered to reject or amend like an Ordinary Bill. Subject to the limitation that an amendment other than for reduction and abolition of tax cannot be moved in either House without the President’s recommendations, such a Bill has to go through all the stages in Rajya Sabha as an Ordinary Bill and in the case of disagreement between the two Houses, the provision of joint-sitting is resorted to for resolving the deadlock.
Category-B Financial Bill: A Bill that would involve expenditure from the Consolidated Fund of India
also does not include any matter specified in Article 110, is treated as an Ordinary Bill and hence can be introduced in either House and the Rajya Sabha has full power either to reject or amend it. It does not require the recommendation of the President for its introduction. Such a Bill is governed by the same procedure as an Ordinary Bill, including the provision of a joint sitting in case of disagreement between the two Houses.
Hence, statement 3 is incorrect.
**For statement 3, UPSC has taken into consideration the word Financial bill for the actual word Finance bill as printed in the question paper. Accordingly, it has considered Statement 3 as correct.
According to UPSC, statements 2 & 3 are correct, and hence Option b is correct.
Hence, option b is correct.
08. With reference to ‘Scheduled Areas’ in India, consider the following statements:
1. Within a State, the notification of an area as Scheduled Area takes place though an Order of the President.
2. The largest administrative unit forming the Scheduled Area is the District and the lowest is the cluster of villages in the Block.
3. The Chief Ministers of the concerned States are required to submit annual reports to the Union Home Ministry on the administration of Scheduled Areas in the States.
How many of the above statements are correct?
(a) Only one
(b) Only two
(c) All three
(d) None
Answer: b
Explanation:
The provision of the Fifth Schedule concerns the administration and control of the scheduled areas and Scheduled Tribes (STs) in any state except the tribal areas of Assam, Meghalaya, Mizoram and Tripura which are administered by the provisions of the Sixth Schedule.
Article 339(2): Control of the Union over the administration of Scheduled Areas and the welfare of Scheduled Tribes- The executive power of the Union shall extend to the giving of directions to a State as to the drawing up and execution of schemes specified in the direction to be essential for the welfare of the Scheduled Tribes in the State.
Scheduled areas as per fifth schedule:
- The term “Scheduled Areas” are those that are scheduled as such by a Presidential Order under Paragraph 6 (1) of the Fifth Schedule, which states that the expression ‘Scheduled Areas’ means such areas as the President may by order declare to be Scheduled Area.
- The specification of “Scheduled Areas” in a state is notified by order of the President, after consultation with the Governor of that State.
- With regard to Scheduled Areas, however, it is only the President of India, by way of a Presidential Order duly notified, who can make any alteration which will include, or exclude, any part of the territory of India from the Fifth Schedule.
Hence Statement 1 is correct.
Criteria for declaring an area as a Scheduled Area:
The First Scheduled Areas and Scheduled Tribes Commission, also known as the Dhebar Commission (1960-61) laid down the following criteria for declaring any area as a ‘Scheduled Area’ under the Fifth Schedule:
- Preponderance of tribal population, which should not be less than 50 percent;
- Compactness and reasonable size of the area;
- Underdeveloped nature of the area;
- and Marked disparity in the economic standard of the people, as compared to the neighboring areas.
More recently, a viable administrative entity such as a district, block or taluk (cluster of villages), has been also identified as an important additional criteria. (Annual Report 2013-14, Ministry of Tribal Affairs, Government of India).
Hence Statement 2 is correct.
Fifth Schedule to the Constitution also lays down that the Governor of each State having Scheduled Areas shall annually, or whenever so required by the President, make a report to the president regarding the administration of the Scheduled Areas in that State.
Statement- I : The Supreme Court of India has held in some judgments that the reservation policies made under Article 16(4) of the Constitution of India would be limited by Article 335 for maintenance of efficiency of administration.
Hence Statement 3 is incorrect.
Hence, option d is correct.
09. Consider the following statements:
Statement- I : The Supreme Court of India has held in some judgments that the reservation policies made under Article 16(4) of the Constitution of India would be limited by Article 335 for maintenance of efficiency of administration.
Statement- II : Article 335 of the Constitution of India defines the term ‘efficiency of administration’.
Which one of the following is correct in respect of the above statements?
(a) Both Statement- I and Statement- II are correct and Statement- II is the correct explanation for Statement- I
(b) Both Statement- I And Statement- II are correct and Statement- II is not the correct explanation for Statement- I
(c) Statement- I is correct but Statement- II is incorrect
(d) Statement- I is incorrect but Statement- II is correct
Answer: c
Explanation:
Article 335: Claims of Scheduled Castes and Scheduled Tribes to services and posts- The claims of the members of the Scheduled Castes and the Scheduled Tribes shall be taken into consideration, consistently with the maintenance of efficiency of administration, in the making of appointments to services and posts in connection with the affairs of the Union or of a State:
Provided that nothing in this article shall prevent in the making of any provision in favor of the members of the Scheduled Castes and the Scheduled Tribes for relaxation in qualifying marks in any examination or lowering the standards of evaluation, for reservation in matters or promotion to any class or classes of services or posts in connection with the affairs of the Union or of a State.
Hence Statement I is correct.
While adjudicating the validity of various reservation policies the Supreme Court of India has consistently referred to the notions of “efficiency” and “merit” in several judgments (Indra Sawhney and Others v Union of India and Others 1993; M Nagaraj and Others v Union of India and Others 2006) court held that the reservation policies made under Article 16(4) of the Constitution would be limited by Article 335, which provides for “maintenance of efficiency of administration,” while considering the claims of the Scheduled Castes (SCs) and the Scheduled Tribes (STs) in the making of appointments to public services and posts.
The Constitution does not define the term “efficiency of administration.” This gap in interpretation was filled by a two-judge bench in the B K Pavitra (II) v Union of India (2019), as it held that “efficiency of administration in the affairs of the union or of a state must be defined in an inclusive sense, where diverse segments of society find representation as a true aspiration of governance by and for the people.”
Hence Statement II is incorrect.
Hence, option c is correct.
10. Consider the following statements:
1. According to the Constitution of India, the Central Government has a duty to protect States from internal disturbances.
2. The Constitution of India exempts the States from providing legal counsel to a person being held for preventive detention.
3. According to the Prevention of Terrorism Act, 2002, confession of the accused before the police cannot be used as evidence.
How many of the above statements are correct?
(a) Only one
(b) Only two
(c) All three
(d) None
Answer: b
Explanation:
Article 355. The duty of the Union was to protect States against external aggression and internal disturbance
It shall be the duty of the Union to protect every State against external aggression and internal disturbance and to ensure that the Government of every State is carried on in accordance with the provisions of this Constitution.
Hence, statement 1 is correct.
Article 22: Rights of arrested persons under ordinary laws:
Clause (1) and (2) of Article 22 guarantee four rights for a person who is arrested for any offence under an ordinary law-
- the right to be informed ‘as soon as may be’ of ground of arrest,
- the right to consult and to be represented by a lawyer of his own choice,
- the right to be produced before a Magistrate within 24 hours,
- the freedom from detention beyond the said period except by the order of the Magistrate.
The above fundamentals rights guaranteed to arrested persons by clauses (1) and (2) of Article 22 are available to both citizens and non-citizens and not to persons who are enemy alien or arrested and detained under any law providing for preventive detention.
Section 25& 26 in The Indian Evidence Act, 1872
25. Confession to police officer not to be proved.––No confession made to a police officer shall be proved as against a person accused of any offence.
26. Confession by accused while in custody of police not to be proved against him.––No confession made by any person whilst he is in the custody of a police-officer unless it be made in the immediate presence of a Magistrate, shall be proved as against such person.
Hence, statement 3 is correct.
Section 32 of The Prevention of Terrorism Act, 2002
32. Certain confessions made to police officers to be taken into consideration.- (1) Notwithstanding anything in the Code or in the Indian Evidence Act, 1872 (1 of 1872), but subject to the provisions of this section, a confession made by a person before a police officer not lower in rank than a Superintendent of Police and recorded by such police officer either in writing or on any mechanical or electronic device like cassettes, tapes or sound tracks from out of which sound or images can be reproduced, shall be admissible in the trial of such person for an offence under this Act or the rules made thereunder.
Hence, option b is correct.
11. Consider the following statements in respect of election to the President of India:
1. The members nominated to either House of the Parliament or the Legislative Assemblies of States are also eligible to be included in the Electoral College.
2. Higher the number of elective Assembly seats, higher is the value of vote of each MLA of that State.
3. The value of vote of each MLA of Madhya Pradesh is greater than that of Kerala.
4. The value of vote of each MLA of Puducherry is higher than that of Arunachal Pradesh because the ratio of total population to total number of elective seats in Puducherry is greater as compared to Arunachal Pradesh.
How many of the above statements are correct?
(a) Only one
(b) Only two
(c) Only three
(d) All four
Answer: a
Explanation:
According to article 54 of the Constitution, the President of India shall be elected by the members of an electoral college consisting of (a) elected members of both Houses of Parliament; and (b) the elected members of the Legislative Assemblies of the States. In this article and in article 55, “State” includes the National Capital Territory of Delhi and the Union territory of Puducherry.”
Accordingly, the electoral college for the Presidential Election now consists of (a) the elected members of both Houses of Parliament; and (b) the elected members of the Legislative Assemblies of the States, including the NCT of Delhi and the Union territory of Puducherry.
The nominated members of both the Houses of Parliament and the Legislative Assemblies of the States are not entitled to vote in the election of the President. Also, the members of the Legislative Councils in the States are not included in the electoral college for the election of the President.
Hence Statement 1 is incorrect.
For the purpose of calculation of value of votes, the Constitution (Eightyfourth) Amendment Act, 2001 provides that until the relevant population figures for the first census to be taken after the year 2026 have been published, the population of the states for the purposes of calculation of value of votes for the Presidential Election shall mean the population as ascertained at the 1971-census.
Article 55 of the Constitution stipulates that, as far as practicable, there shall be uniformity in the scale of representation of the different States at the election of the President. For the purpose of securing such uniformity among the States inter se as well as parity between the States as a whole and the Union, the number of votes which each elected member of Parliament and the Legislative Assembly of each State is entitled to cast at such election shall be determined in the following manner:-
(a) every elected member of the Legislative Assembly of a State shall have as many votes as there are multiples of one thousand in the quotient obtained by dividing the population of the State by the total number of the elected members of the Assembly;
(b) if, after taking the said multiples of one thousand, the remainder is not less than five hundred, then the vote of each member referred to in (a) above shall be further increased by one;
(c) each elected member of either House of Parliament shall have such number of votes as may be obtained by dividing the total number of votes assigned to the members of the Legislative Assemblies of the State under sub-clauses (a) and (b) by the total number of elected members of both Houses of Parliament, fractions exceeding one-half being counted as one and other fractions being disregarded.
Value of vote of each elected Member of Legislative Assembly of a State = The total population of the state/ (Total number of the elected members of the Assembly*1000)
Example – Total population of Andhra Pradesh (1971 Census)- 2,78,00,586
Total number elective seats in State Assembly – 175
Number of votes of elected Member of Legislative Assembly of Andhra Pradesh
2,78,00,586 / 175 x 1000 = 159
Hence Statement 2 is incorrect.
Value of vote of each elected Member of Parliament = The total number of votes assigned to the members of the Legislative Assemblies of the States/The total number of the elected members of both Houses of Parliament
Total value of votes of the elected MLAs of all the States = 5,43,231
Total number of elected MPs = Lok Sabha [543] + Rajya Sabha [233] = 776
Value of vote of each MP = 5,43,231 / 776 = 700
- Total value of votes of 776 Members of Parliament 700 x 776 = 5,43,200
- Total electors for the Presidential Election, 2022 = MLAs [4033] + MPs [776] = 4809
- Total value of 4809 electors for the Presidential Election, 2022 Total value of votes of 776 MPs and total value of votes of the elected MLAs of all the States = 5,43,200 + 5,43,231 = 10,86,431
Hence Statement 3 is correct and 4 is incorrect.
Hence, option a is correct.
12. Consider the following statements in respect of the Constitution Day:
Statement-I : The Constitution Day is celebrated on 26th November every year to promote constitutional values among citizens.
Statement-II : On 26th November, 1949, the Constituent Assembly of India set up a Drafting Committee under the Chairmanship of Dr. B. R. Ambedkar to prepare a Draft Constitution of India.
Which one of the following is correct in respect of the above statements?
(a) Both Statement- I and Statement- II are correct and Statement- II is the correct explanation for Statement- I
(b) Both Statement- I and Statement- II are correct and Statement-II is not the correct explanation for Statement- I
(c) Statement- I is correct but Statement- II is incorrect
(d) Statement- I is incorrect but Statement- II is correct
Answer: c
Explanation:
Constitution Day (or Samvidhan Divas), also known as National Law Day, is celebrated in India on 26 November every year to commemorate the adoption of the Constitution of India. The Government of India declared 26 November as Constitution Day on 19 November 2015 by a gazette notification.
Hence Statement 1 is correct.
On 26 November 1949, the Constituent Assembly of India adopted to the Constitution of India, and it came into effect on 26 January 1950. The year of 2015 was the 125th birth anniversary of Ambedkar, who had chaired the drafting committee of the Constituent Assembly and played a pivotal role in the drafting of the constitution.
Hence Statement 2 is incorrect.
Hence, option c is correct.
13. With reference to Home Guards, consider the Following statements:
1. Home Guards are raised under the Home Guards Act and Rules of the Central Government.
2. The role of the Home Guards is to serve as an auxiliary force to the police in maintenance of internal security.
3. To prevent infiltration on the international border/ coastal areas, the Border Wing Home Guards Battalions have been raised in some States.
How many of the above statements are correct?
(a) Only one
(b) Only two
(c) All three
(d) None
Answer: b
Explanation:
Home Guards are raised under the Home Guards Act and Rules of the States/Union Territories.
Hence Statement 1 is incorrect.
- ‘Home Guards’ is a voluntary force, first raised in India in December 1946, to assist the police in controlling civil disturbance and communal riots.Subsequently, the concept of the voluntary citizen’s force was adopted by several States.
- In the wake of Chinese aggression in 1962, the Centre advised the States and Union Territories to merge their existing voluntary organisation into one uniform voluntary force known as Home Guards.
- The role of Home Guards is to serve as an auxiliary Force to the Police in maintenance of internal security situations, help the community in any kind of emergency such as an air-raid, fire, cyclone, earthquake, epidemic etc., help in maintenance of essential services, promote communal harmony and assist the administration in protecting weaker sections, participate in socio-economic and welfare activities and perform Civil Defence duties.
- The organization is spread over in all States and Union Territories except in Kerala.
- Home Guards are of two types – rural and urban.
- In border States, Border Wing Home Guards (BWHG) Bns. have been raised, which serve as an auxiliary to the Border Security Force.
- Fifteen Border Wing Home Guards (BWHG) Battalions have been raised in the border States viz. Punjab (6 Bns.), Rajasthan ( 4 Bns.), Gujarat (2 Bns.) and one each Battalion for Meghalaya, Tripura and West Bengal to serve as an auxiliary to Border Security Force for preventing infiltration on the international border/coastal areas, guarding of VA/VPs and lines of communication in vulnerable area at the time of external aggression.
Hence, option b is correct.
14. Consider the following statements in respect of the National Flag of India according to the Flag Code of India, 2002:
Statement I: One of the standard sizes of the National Flag of India is 600 mm X 400 mm
Statement II: The ratio of the length to the height [width] of the Flag shall be 3:2
Which one of the following is correct in respect of the above statements?
- Both Statement I and Statement II are correct, and Statement II is the correct explanation of Statement II
- Both Statement I and Statment II are correct, and Statement II is not the correct explanation for Statement II
- Statement I is correct, but Statement II is incorrect
- Statement II is incorrect, but Statement II is correct
Answer: d
Explanation:
Flag Code of India, 2002:
The National Flag shall be a tri-colour panel made up of three rectangular panels or sub-panels of equal widths. The colour of the top of the panel should be Indian Saffron (Kesari) and that of the button panel shall be Indian Green. The middle panel shall be white, bearing at its centre the design of Ashoka Chakra in navy blue colour with 24 equally spaced spokes. The Ashoka Chakra shall preferably be screen printed or otherwise printed or stencilled or suitably embroidered and shall be completely visible on both sides of the Flag in the centre of the white panel.
The National Flag of India shall be made of hand-spun and hand-woven wool/cotton/silk khadi bunting.
The Nationa Flag shall be rectangular in shape. The ratio of the length to the height [width] of the Flag shall be 3:2
Hence statement 2 is correct.
The standard size of the National Flag shall be as follows:-
| Flag Size Number | Dimensions in mm |
| 1 | 6300 X 4200 |
| 2 | 3600 X 2400 |
| 3 | 2700 X 1800 |
| 4 | 1800 X 1200 |
| 5 | 1350 X 900 |
| 6 | 900 X 600 |
| 7 | 450 X 300 |
| 8 | 225 X 150 |
| 9 | 150 X 100 |
Hence, statement 1 is incorrect.
An appropriate size should be chosen for display. Flags of 450X300 mm are intended for aircraft on VVIP flights, 225X150 mm for motor cars, and 150×100 mm for table flags.
Hence, option d is correct.
15. With reference to India, consider the following pairs:
Action The Act under which it is covered
1. Unauthorised wearing of
Police or military uniforms The Official Secrets Act, 1923
2. Knowingly misleading or otherwise
interfering with a police officer or The Indian Evidence Act, 1872
military officer when engaged in their duties.
3. Celebratory gunfire which can endanger
the personal safety of others. The Arms [Amendment] Act, 2019
How many of the above pairs are correctly matched?
- Only one
- Only two
- All three
- None
Answer:b
Explanation:
THE OFFICIAL SECRETS ACT, 1923
Section 6.Unauthorised use of uniforms; falsification of reports, forgery, personation, and false documents.
Section 7. Interfering with officers of the police or members of the Armed forces of the Union.
(1) No person in the vicinity of any prohibited place shall obstruct, knowingly mislead or otherwise interfere with or impede any police officer or any member of the Armed Forces of the Union engaged on guard, sentry, patrol, or other similar duty in relation to the prohibited place.
(2)If any person acts in contravention of the provisions of this section, he shall be punishable with
imprisonment, which may extend to three years, or with a fine, or with both.
THE ARMS (AMENDMENT) ACT, 2019
Section (9) Whoever uses a firearm in a rash or negligent manner or in celebratory gunfire so as to endanger human life or personal safety of others shall be punishable with imprisonment for a term which may extend to two years or with a fine which may extend to rupees one lakh, or with both.
Explanation.—For the purposes of this subsection, “celebratory gunfire” means the practice of using a firearm in public gatherings, religious places, marriage parties or other functions to fire ammunition.’
Hence, option b is correct.
Saksham Tanwar
05/02/2024Such an amazing explanation!! Please provide for other past years as well.