There were 15 Questions from Polity, of which
- 6 Questions on Parliament and Parliamentary Procedures
- 2 Questions on Statutory Bodies
- 2 Questions on Ministers and Departments
- 2 Questions on Fundamental Rights and Writs
- 1 Question on Constitutional Amendment
- 1 Question on Special Provisions for Scheduled Tribes
- 1 Question on Parts of the Constitution
Overall, the level of questions was Easy to Moderate.
Questions were framed to test the candidate’s complete understanding of parts and provisions of the Constitution, Parliament and Parliamentary Procedures.
Previous Year UPSC Polity Questions (PYQs) With Explanation 2024
1. As per Article 368 of the Constitution of India, the Parliament may amend any provision of the Constitution by way of:
1. Addition
2. Variation
3. Repeal
Select the correct answer using the code given below:
(a) 1 and 2 only
(b) 2 and 3 only
(c) 1 and 3 only
(d) 1, 2 and 3
1. Ans: d
Explanation:
Article 368 in the Constitution of India
368: Power of Parliament to amend the Constitution and procedure, therefore –
(1) Notwithstanding anything in this Constitution, Parliament may, in the exercise of its constituent power, amend by way of addition, variation or repeal any provision of this Constitution in accordance with the procedure laid down in this article.
However, the Parliament cannot amend those provisions which form the ‘basic structure’ of the Constitution.
Hence, option d is correct.
2. Which of the following statements are correct in respect of a Money Bill in the Parliament?
1. Article 109 mentions a special procedure in respect of Money Bills.
2. A Money Bill shall not be introduced in the Council of States.
3. The Rajya Sabha can either approve the Bill or suggest changes but cannot reject it.
4. Amendments to a Money Bill suggested by the Rajya Sabha have to be accepted by the Lok Sabha.
Select the answer using the code given below:
(a) 1 and 2 only
(b) 2 and 3 only
(c) 1, 2 and 3
(d) 1, 3 and 4
2. Ans: c
Explanation:
MONEY BILL IN THE PARLIAMENT
Article 109 in the Constitution of India deals about money bill
Article 109. Special procedure in respect of Money Bills.— (1) A Money Bill shall not be introduced in the Council of States.
Hence, statements 1 and 2 are correct.
A Money Bill can be introduced only in the Lok Sabha. After it has been passed by Lok Sabha, it is transmitted to Rajya Sabha for its recommendations and that House is, within a period of fourteen days from the date of the receipt of the Bill, required to return the Bill to Lok Sabha with its recommendations, if any.
The Lok Sabha may either accept or reject all or any of the recommendations made by the Rajya Sabha. If Lok Sabha accepts any of the recommendations made by Rajya Sabha, the Bill is deemed to have been passed by both the Houses with the amendments recommended by Rajya Sabha and accepted by Lok Sabha.
If, however, Lok Sabha does not accept any of the recommendations of Rajya Sabha, the Money Bill is deemed to have been passed by both the Houses of Parliament in the form in which it was passed by Lok Sabha without any of the amendments recommended by Rajya Sabha.
If the Rajya Sabha does not return the Bill within the prescribed period of fourteen days, the Bill is deemed to have been passed by both Houses of Parliament at the expiry of the period in the form in which it was passed by the Lok Sabha.
Hence, statement 3 is correct & 4 is incorrect.
3. The North Eastern Council (NEC) was established by the North Eastern Council Act 1971. Subsequent to the amendment of the NEC Act in 2002, the Council comprises which of the following members?
1. Governor of the Constituent State
2. Chief Minister of the Constituent State
3. Three Members to be nominated by the President of India
4. The Home Minister of India
Select the correct answer using the code given below:
(a) 1, 2 and 3 only
(b) 1, 3 and 4 only
(c) 2 and 4 only
(d) 1, 2, 3 and 4
3. Ans: a
Explanation:
North Eastern Council (NEC) was constituted as a statutory advisory body under the NEC Act 1971
The NEC Act was amended by the Parliament in 2002 (Act No. 68 of 2002).
The North Eastern Council is the nodal agency for the economic and social development of the North Eastern Region which consists of the eight States of Arunachal Pradesh, Assam, Manipur, Meghalaya, Mizoram, Nagaland, Sikkim and Tripura.
The Council now has following as its members
- The Governors of the 8 States mentioned above,
- The Chief Ministers of the said States and
- Three Members nominated by the President.
The President will nominate the Chairman of the Council, and he need not be nominated from among the other Members.
The Ministry of Home Affairs (MHA) discharges multifarious responsibilities, the important among them being – internal security, border management, Centre-State relations, administration of Union Territories, management of Central Armed Police Forces, disaster management, etc.
Hence, option a is correct.
4. How many Delimitation Commissions have been constituted by the Government of India till December 2023?
(a) One
(b) Two
(c) Three
(d) Four
4. Ans: d
Explanation:
Delimitation literally means the act or process of fixing limits or boundaries of territorial constituencies in a country or a province having a legislative body. The job of delimitation is assigned to a high-power body. Such a body is known as the Delimitation Commission or a Boundary Commission.
In India, such Delimitation Commissions have been constituted 4 times – in 1952 under the Delimitation Commission Act, 1952, in 1963 under the Delimitation Commission Act, 1962, in 1973 under the Delimitation Act, 1972 and in 2002 under the Delimitation Act, 2002.
The Delimitation Commission in India is a high-power body whose orders have the force of law and cannot be challenged in any court. These orders come into force on a date to be specified by the President of India on this behalf. Copies of its orders are laid before the House of the People and the State Legislative Assembly concerned, but no modifications are permissible therein by them.
Hence, option d is correct.
5. The Constitution (71st Amendment) Act, 1992, amends the Eighth Schedule to the Constitution to include which of the following languages?
1. Konkani
2. Manipuri
3. Nepali
4. Maithili
Select the correct answer using the code given below:
(a) 1, 2 and 3
(b) 1, 2 and 4
(c) 1, 3 and 4
(d) 2, 3 and 4
5. Ans: a
Explanation:
The Eighth Schedule to the Constitution consists of the following 22 languages:-
Of these, 14 were initially included in the Constitution
These included Assamese, Bengali, Gujarati, Hindi, Kannada, Kashmiri, Malayalam, Marathi, Oriya, Punjabi, Sanskrit, Tamil, Telugu and Urdu.
The Constitution (Twenty-first Amendment) Act, 1967, amended the Eighth Schedule to the Constitution so as to include Sindhi as one of the languages, thereby raising the total number of languages listed in the schedule to fifteen.
The 71st Amendment, enacted in 1992, included three more languages Konkani, Manipuri and Nepali to the list.
In 2003, the 92nd Amendment was enacted, which added Bodo, Dogri, Santhali and Maithali, raising the total number of languages to 22.
Demands of languages for inclusion in the Eighth Schedule
At present, there are demands for the inclusion of 38 more languages in the Eighth Schedule to the Constitution. These are:- (1) Angika, (2) Banjara, (3) Bazika, (4) Bhojpuri, (5) Bhoti, (6) Bhotia, (7) Bundelkhandi (8) Chhattisgarhi, (9) Dhatki, (10) English, (11) Garhwali (Pahari), (12) Gondi, (13) Gujjar/Gujjari (14) Ho, (15) Kachachhi, (16) Kamtapuri, (17) Karbi, (18) Khasi, (19) Kodava (Coorg), (20) Kok Barak, (21) Kumaoni (Pahari), (22) Kurak, (23) Kurmali, (24) Lepcha, (25) Limbu, (26) Mizo (Lushai), (27) Magahi, (28) Mundari, (29) Nagpuri, (30) Nicobarese, (31) Pahari (Himachali), (32) Pali, (33) Rajasthani, (34) Sambalpuri/Kosali, (35) Shaurseni (Prakrit), (36) Siraiki, (37) Tenyidi and (38) Tulu.
Hence, option a is correct.
6. Which of the following statements are correct about the Constitution of India?
1. Powers of the Municipalities are given in Part IX A of the Constitution.
2. Emergency provisions are given in Part XVIII of the Constitution.
3. Provisions related to the amendment of the Constitution are given in Part XX of the Constitution.
Select the answer using the code given below:
(a) 1 and 2 only
(b) 2 and 3 only
(c) 1 and 3 only
(d) 1, 2 and 3
6. Ans: d
Explanation:
| Parts | Subject Matter | Articles Covered | |
1. | IX A | The Municipalities | 243-P to 243-ZG |
| 2. | XVIII | Emergency Provisions | 352 to 360 |
| 3. | XX | Amendment of the Constitution | 368 |
Hence, option d is correct.
7. Which one of the following statements is correct as per the Constitution of India?
(a) Interstate trade and commerce is a State subject under the State List.
(b) Interstate migration is a State subject under the State List.
(c) Inter-State quarantine is a Union subject under the Union List.
(d) Corporation tax is a State subject under the State List.
7. Ans: c
Explanation:
Union List
Entry 42. Inter-State trade and commerce
Entry 81. Inter-state migration; inter-state quarantine.
Entry 85. Corporation tax
Hence, option c is correct.
8. Under which of the following Articles of the Constitution of India has the Supreme Court of India placed the Right to Privacy?
(a) Article 15
(b) Article 16
(c) Article 19
(d) Article 21
8. Ans: d
Explanation:
Article 21 in the Constitution of India
Article 21- Protection of life and personal liberty.—No person shall be deprived of his life or personal liberty except according to procedure established by law.
The Constitution does not grant in specific and express terms any right to privacy as such. Right to Privacy is not enumerated as a Fundamental Right in the Constitution. However, such a right has been interpreted by the Supreme Court from Article 21 and several other provisions of the Constitution read with the Directive Principles of State Policy.
In the Kharak Singh vs. State of Uttar Pradesh,1963, the minority opinion by Justice Subba Rao was in favour of inferring the Right to Privacy from the expression ‘personal liberty’ in Article 21.
In Govind vs. State of Madhya Pradesh, the Supreme Court accepted a limited Fundamental Right to Privacy “as an emanation” from Articles 19(a), (d) and 21.
The Right to Privacy is not, however, absolute; reasonable restrictions can be placed thereon in the public interest under Article 19(5).
Again, in R Rajagopal vs. State of Tamil Nadu, the Supreme Court has asserted that Right to Privacy is implicit in the Right to Life and Liberty guaranteed to the citizens by Article 21. It is a “right to be let alone”.
In People’s Union for Civil Liberties vs. Union of India, the Supreme Court observed that: “We have, therefore, no hesitation in holding that right to privacy is a part of the right to life and personal liberty enshrined under Article 21 of the Constitution. The said right cannot be curtailed ‘except according to procedure established by law.
Hence, option d is correct.
9. Which of the following statements about the Ethics Committee in the Lok Sabha are correct?
1. Initially, it was an ad-hoc Committee.
2. Only a Member of the Lok Sabha can make a complaint relating to the unethical conduct of a member of the Lok Sabha.
3. This Committee cannot take up any matter which is sub-judice.
Select the answer using the code given below:
(a) 1 and 2 only
(b) 2 and 3 only
(c) 1 and 3 only
(d) 1, 2 and 3
9. Ans: c
Explanation:
The Speaker 13th Lok Sabha (Late Shri G.M.C. Balayogi) constituted the first Ethics Committee as adhoc committee in Lok Sabha on 16 May 2000 with the following terms of reference namely:-
(a) to oversee the moral and ethical conduct of the Members and
(b) to examine the cases referred to it with reference to ethical and other misconduct of the Members.
Ethics committee became a permanent part of the House only in 2015. Now it has status of Other Standing Committee
Hence, statement 3 is correct.
10. A Writ of Prohibition is an order issued by the Supreme Court or High Courts to:
(a) a government officer prohibiting him from taking a particular action.
(b) the Parliament/Legislative Assembly to pass a law on Prohibition.
(c) the lower court prohibiting the continuation of proceedings in a case.
(d) the Government is prohibiting it from following an unconstitutional policy.
10. Ans: c
Explanation:
The jurisdiction for the grant of a writ of prohibition is primarily supervisory, and the object of the writ is to restrain courts or inferior tribunals from exercising jurisdiction that they do not possess at all or to prevent them from exceeding the limits of their jurisdiction. The object is to confine courts or tribunals of inferior or limited jurisdiction within their bounds.
Therefore, the writ of prohibition is issued to prohibit the tribunal from making an ultra vires order or decision. This writ is available during the pendency of the proceedings.
It is not available against the public officer who is not vested with the judicial functions.
Where an excess of jurisdiction is apparent on the face of proceedings, a writ of prohibition is not a matter of discretion but may be had as a right.
A writ of prohibition may be issued not only in case of absence or excess of jurisdiction but also in cases where the court or tribunal assumes jurisdiction under a law, which itself contravenes some of the fundamental rights guaranteed by the Constitution.
Hence, option c is correct.
11. Consider the following statements:
1. It is the Governor of the State who recognises and declares any community of that State as a Scheduled Tribe.
2. A community declared as a Scheduled Tribe in a State need not be so in another State.
Which of the statements given above is/are correct?
(a) 1 only
(b) 2 only
(c) Both 1 and 2
(d) Neither 1 nor 2
11. Ans: b
Explanation:
Article 342 in the Constitution of India
(1)The President may, with respect to any State or Union territory, and where it is a State after consultation with the Governor thereof, by public notification specify the tribes or tribal communities or parts of or groups within tribes or tribal communities which shall for the purposes of this Constitution be deemed to be Scheduled Tribes in relation to that State or Union territory, as the case may be.
(2)Parliament may by law include in or exclude from the list of Scheduled Tribes specified in a notification issued under clause (1) any tribe or tribal community or part of or group within any tribe or tribal community, but save as aforesaid a notification issued under the said clause shall not be varied by any subsequent notification.
Hence, statement 1 is incorrect and statement 2 is correct.
Article 366(25)-“Scheduled Tribes” means such tribes or tribal communities or parts of or groups within such tribes or tribal communities as are deemed under Article 342 to be Scheduled Tribes for the purposes of this Constitution.
The criteria generally adopted for the specification of a community as a scheduled tribe are not spelt out in the Constitution.
12. With reference to the Union Budget, consider the following statements:
1. The Union Finance Minister on behalf of the Prime Minister lays the Annual Financial Statement before both the Houses of Parliament.
2. At the Union level, no demand for a grant can be made except on the recommendation of the President of India.
Which of the statements given above is/are correct?
(a) 1 only
(b) 2 only
(c) Both 1 and 2
(d) Neither 1 nor 2
12. Ans: b
Explanation:
In all the parliamentary democracies, the budget, after having been prepared and passed by the executive government, is presented to the legislature, where it is discussed and finally voted.
The responsibility of presenting the budget to the legislature is that of the executive government (and not the Prime Minister alone). Someone representing the executive government, usually the Finance Minister, must present the budget to the legislature.
Centralised executive responsibility for budget preparation and submission will facilitate budget authorisation by the legislature and enable it to centre attention on programme review and policy implementation.
The executive right to present the budget to the legislature gives an opportunity to the executive government to formulate economic and financial policies of the country.
Hence, statement 1 is incorrect.
Article 112 in the Constitution of India:
Annual financial statement.—(1) The President shall,, in respect of every financial year, cause to be laid before both the Houses of Parliament a statement of the estimated receipts and expenditure of the Government of India for that year, in this Part, referred to as the “annual financial statement”.
Article 113 (3) in the Constitution of India:
No demand for a grant shall be made except upon recommendation from the President.
Hence, statement 2 is correct.
13. With reference to the Speaker of the Lok Sabha, consider the following statements:
While any resolution for the removal of the Speaker of the Lok Sabha is under consideration:
1. He/she shall not preside.
2. He/she shall not have the right to speak.
3. He/she shall not be entitled to vote on the resolution in the first instance.
Which of the statements given above is/are correct?
(a) 1 only
(b) 1 and 2 only
(c) 2 and 3 only
(d) 1, 2 and 3
13. Ans: a
Explanation:
The Speaker or the Deputy Speaker is removable from his office by a resolution of Lok Sabha passed by a majority of all the then members of the House.
At least fourteen days’ notice has to be given of the intention to move such a resolution. A member wishing to give notice of a resolution for the removal of the Speaker or the Deputy Speaker is required to do so in writing to the Secretary-General.
At the sitting of Lok Sabha, while any resolution for the removal of the Speaker or the Deputy Speaker from his office is under consideration, the Speaker or the Deputy Speaker, as the case may be, cannot preside even though he is present in the House.
Hence, statement 1 is correct.
The Speaker has the right to speak and otherwise to take part in the proceedings of Lok Sabha while any resolution for his removal from office is under consideration in the House and is entitled to vote only in the first instance on such resolution or any other matter during such proceedings but not in the case of an equality of vote.
Hence, both statements 2 and 3 are incorrect.
14. With reference to the Indian Parliament, consider the following statements:
1. A bill pending in the Lok Sabha lapses on its dissolution.
2. A bill passed by the Lok Sabha and pending in the Rajya Sabha lapses on the dissolution of the Lok Sabha.
3. A bill in regard to which the President of India notified his/her intention to summon the Houses to a joint sitting lapse on the dissolution of the Lok Sabha.
Which of the statements given above is/are correct?
(a) 1 only
(b) 1 and 2
(c) 2 and 3
(d) 3 only
14. Ans: b
Explanation:
The end of the life of Lok Sabha either by an order made by the President under article 85(2)(b) or on the expiration of the period of five years from the date appointed for its first meeting is termed as ‘dissolution of the House’
Article 107 lays down the effect of dissolution upon Bills before each House of Parliament in the event of dissolution of Lok Sabha. The present position of the effect of dissolution upon the pending Bills is that-
In Lok Sabha, all Bills pending at the time of dissolution, whether originating in the House or transmitted to it by Rajya Sabha, lapse.
Hence, statement 1 is correct.
In Rajya Sabha, Bills passed by Lok Sabha but which have not been disposed of and are pending in Rajya Sabha on the date of dissolution lapse.
Hence, statement 2 is correct.
Only the Bills originating in Rajya Sabha that have not been passed by Lok Sabha but are still pending before Rajya Sabha do not lapse.
If, however, in respect of a Bill upon which the Houses have disagreed and the President has notified his intention of summoning a Joint Sitting of the Houses for the consideration of the Bill prior to dissolution, that Bill does not lapse and may be passed at a Joint Sitting of both Houses, notwithstanding that dissolution has intervened since the President notified his intention to summon the Joint Sitting of the Houses
Hence, statement 3 is incorrect.
There is no express provision in the Constitution regarding the effect of dissolution on a Bill that has been passed by the two Houses of Parliament and sent to the President for assent. It has, however, been held that such a Bill does not lapse on dissolution of Lok Sabha. Further, if such a Bill is returned by the President for reconsideration, the successor House can reconsider it, and if it is passed by the successor House (with or without amendments), it will be deemed to have been passed “again.”
15. With reference to the Parliament of India, consider the following statements:
1. Prorogation of a House by the President of India does not require the advice of the Council of Ministers.
2. Prorogation of a House is generally done after the House is adjourned sine die but there is no bar to the President of India prorogating the House which is in session.
3. Dissolution of the Lok Sabha is done by the President of India, who, save in exceptional circumstances, does so on the advice of the Council of Ministers.
Which of the statements given above is/are correct?
(a) 1 only
(b) 1 and 2
(c) 2 and 3
(d) 3 only
15. Ans: c
Explanation:
Termination of a session of the House by an order made by the President under article 85(2) is called ‘prorogation’.
The President, in exercising the power to prorogue the House, acts on the advice of the Prime Minister. The Prime Minister may consult the Cabinet before the advice is submitted to the President.
Prorogation of the House may take place any time, even while the House is sitting. Usually, however, prorogation follows the adjournment of the sitting of the House sine die.
After the adjournment of Lok Sabha sine die, the Minister of Parliamentary Affairs (or the Leader of the House, as the case may be) sends a communication to the Secretary-General conveying the intention of the Prime Minister or the Cabinet to prorogue the House. The proposal of the Prime Minister, after being agreed to by the Speaker, is submitted to the President.
Hence, statement 1 is incorrect and statement 2 is correct.
The power to dissolve Lok Sabha is vested in the President and he exercises this power on the advice of the Prime Minister. The Prime Minister may consult the Cabinet or inform it of his intention to make a recommendation to the President.
Article 53 of the Constitution provides that the executive power of the Union vests in the President. Under Article 74(1), all the functions of the President have to be discharged by him with the aid and advice of the Council of Ministers headed by the Prime Minister. Therefore, it is contended that the exercise of the power of dissolution is an executive function of the President’s office and, as such, has to be performed with the aid and advice of the Council of Ministers.
However, every power conferred by the Constitution on any authority must be exercised in accordance with the Constitution and in accordance with valid laws enacted under it or continued by it. Thus, if the President feels that the advice of the Council of Ministers defeats the underlying principles of democratic government, he must act with discretion and wisdom (exceptional circumstance).
Thus, in India, as in England, dissolution may be rejected if the President opines that.
- The existing Parliament is still vital, viable and capable of doing its job.
- A general election would be detrimental to the national economy,” and
- The President could find another Prime Minister who would carry on his government for a reasonable period with a working majority in the House.
Hence, statement 3 is correct.