UPSC Prelims 2025: Key with Solutions & Analysis

Key, Solutions, Cutoff, Toughness, Subject-wise breakup and Analysis of Prelims 2025

Science questions dominated the examination, the examiner mostly focused on the current scientific developments and basics of science.

Ecology and environment section was dominated by climate change issues, with very few questions on biodiversity and environmental ecology.

In the History part, most of the questions were from modern India with a focus on the national movement and social reformers. Couple of questions from Early Medieval India and a few questions from Ancient India. There were no questions from medieval India.

In the Economy section, questions mostly focused on the conceptual part and the international issues with respect to the economy.

Geography questions mostly focused on world geography, which were mostly map-based and the concepts of World Physical geography. There were no questions on Indian geography.

In the Polity section, in addition to the conventional questions of Indian polity examiner also focused on the questions related to Governance.

Under International relations examiner mostly focused on important global events and the issues.

There were a few questions on current affairs based on sports.

*Candidates regularly following the important events in news and strong in concepts will have an edge in this paper.

Is Prelims 2025 Tough?

Regarding the toughness of the examination, the paper appears to have a mix of easy, moderate and tough questions. The questions were lengthy, a new style of questions, concept and applied questions, considering these factors paper can be rated as Moderately Tough

What is cutoff for Prelims 2025?

Though there were a few easy questions and moderate questions. There are fairer chances of losing marks mostly through negative marking. The expected cutoff would be around 77(+/- 5)

Subject-wise breakup of Prelims 2025

Subject	Number of Questions
Science & Technology	17
Economy	17
Polity	16
History	16
Geography	13
Environment & Ecology	13
IR & Miscellaneous	8

Answer Key and Solutions Prelims 2025

PRELIMS 2025 ANSWER KEY AND EXPLANATION -SET B

UPSC conducted Preliminary examination for Civil services on 25th May, 2025. Here we provide answer key with detailed explanation. Aspirants can use this to test their score in the exam

1. Consider the following types of vehicles:

I. Full battery electric vehicles

II. Hydrogen fuel cell vehicles

III. Fuel cell-electric hybrid vehicles

How many of the above are considered as alternative powertrain vehicles?

(a) Only one

(b) Only two

(d) None

1. Ans-c

Explanation

Approaches to decarbonise the transport sector and reduce the use of fossil fuels:

Alternative powertrains—These are powertrains that are not based exclusively on the internal combustion engine. The main options include hybrids and plug-in hybrids, full battery electrics, and hydrogen fuel cell vehicles , Fuel cell electric vehicles (FCEVs)
Low carbon fuels—These are liquid or gaseous fuels that can be used in combustion engines, existing or modified. The main options include e-fuels (i.e., synthetic fuels produced using electrical energy) and biofuels.

Hence all the three are correct

2. With reference to Unmanned Aerial Vehicles (UAVs), consider the following statements:

I. All types of UAVs can do vertical landing.

II. All types of UAVs can do automated hovering.

III. All types of UAVs can use battery only as a source of power supply.

How many of the statements given above are correct?

(a) Only one

(b) Only two

(d) None

2. Ans-d

Explanation

Early UAVs development is generally divided into two separate types, Fixed Wing UAV (FWUAV), and rotorcraft UAV (RUAV).

FWUAVs typically have longer endurance and thus can reach further than RUAV in a single flight, but require runways for take-offs and landings.

RUAVs on the other hand, are more manoeuvrable and able to take-off and land vertically without any runway but has much lesser endurance due to their low efficiency in power consumption and low speed.

Hybrid Vertical-Take-Off-Landing (VTOL) aircraft will have the advantages of both FWUAV and RUAV

Drones, are generally classified as single rotor (helicopter), multi-rotor (multicopter), fixed wing, and fixed-wing hybrid VTOL according to their physical structures.

Single-rotor drones are small-sized helicopters, and fueled or electric types are available. Working with a single blade and fuel offers advantages such as increasing stability and flying longer distances, but it also brings safety risks.

Multicopters are the smallest, lightest, and most widely used drones on the market. Multicopters are divided into models with four engines (quadcopter), six engines (hexacopter), and eight engines (octocopter) according to the number of motors.

Fixed-wing drones: Unlike rotary wings, they use wings like a regular airplane instead of vertical lift rotors to provide lift . In other words, they only need to use energy to move forward. They are much more efficient as they do not use additional power to stay in the air, so they can cover longer distances and scan much larger areas. Gasoline-powered ones can remain in the air for 16 hours or more.

The main disadvantage of a fixed-wing aircraft is that they cannot fly in one spot. Depending on their size, they need a runway or launcher to get them into the air. Fixed-wing also makes launching and landing them much more difficult, as a runway, parachute, or net may be needed for a safe landing again after the flight.

Fixed-wing hybrid Vertical-Take-Off-Landing(VTOL)drone: Fixed-wing hybrid VTOL drones are a new hybrid category that can also take off and land vertically, combining the advantages of fixed-wing UAVs and the ability to hover.

Fixed-wing hybrid VTOL unmanned aerial vehicles have the advantages of flying vertically and hovering, offering greater versatility than fixed-wing drones and the durability needed to travel long distances with heavy payloads. On the other hand, they could be better in both forward flying and hovering features and the need for specialised personnel in the flight and control of these types of drones is an important consideration.

Their power sources classify drones as battery-powered, gasoline-powered, hydrogen fuel cell, and solar drones.

Hence none of the statements are correct

3. In the context of electric vehicle batteries, consider the following elements:

I. Cobalt

II. Graphite

III. Lithium

IV. Nickel

How many of the above usually make up battery cathodes?

(a) Only one

(b) Only two

(d) All the four

3. Ans-c

Explanation

Every electric vehicle (EV) is a lithium-ion battery that depends on several key minerals that help power it. The minerals used are

Mineral	Cell part
Aluminium	Cathode, Casing, Current collectors
Nickel	Cathode
Copper	Current collectors
Steel	Casing
Manganese	Cathode
Cobalt	Cathode
Lithium	Cathode
Iron	Cathode
Graphite	Anode

Hence, only 1,2,4 are correct

4. Consider the following:

I. Cigarette butts

II. Eyeglass lenses

III. Car tyres

How many of them contain plastic?

(a) Only one

(b) Only two

(d) None

4. Ans-c

Explanation

Cigarette butts are actually the most abundant form of plastic waste in the world.

Common Eyeglass Lens Materials- Standard glass ,Standard plastic ,Polycarbonate, Trivex.

Car tyres are made from around 24 per cent synthetic rubber – a variation of plastic made using petroleum by-products – that breaks down as the vehicles travel.

Microplastic residue from car tyres account for 28% of microplastics entering the environment globally.

All the three are correct .

5. Consider the following substances:

I. Ethanol

II. Nitroglycerine

III. Urea

Coal gasification technology can be used in the production of how many of them?

(a) Only one

(b) Only two

(d) None

5. Ans-b

Explanation

Coal is one of the most abundant natural resources in the country. Coal gasification technology enables conversion of coal into syngas (synthetic gas)

Syngas can be used to produce Gaseous Fuels such as Hydrogen, Substitute Natural Gas (SNG or Methane), Di-Methyl Ether (DME), Liquid Fuels such as Methanol, Ethanol, Synthetic diesel and Chemical and Petrochemicals like Methanol derivatives, Olefins, Propylene, Mono-Ethylene Glycol (MEG). Acetic Acid , Formaldehyde , nitrogenous fertilizers including Ammonia , Urea, Ammonium nitrate , DAP

Hence 1 and 3 are correct

Nitroglycerine is an explosive liquid which was first made by Ascanio Sobrero in 1846 by treating glycerol with a mixture of nitric and sulphuric acid. It is not produced by Coal Gasification .

Hence 2 is in correct

6. What is the common characteristic of the chemical substances generally known as CL-20, HMX and LLM-105, which are sometimes talked about in media?

(a) These are alternatives to hydro-fluorocarbon refrigerants

(b) These are explosives in military weapons

(d) These are fuels for rocket propulsion

6. Ans-b

Explanation

CL-20, or Octa-Nitro-Cubane, is a Nitramine class of explosive 15 times as powerful as HMX, His/Her Majesty Explosive or High Melting Explosive or Octogen.

CL-20, so named after the China Lake facility of the Naval Air Weapons Station in California, US, was first synthesized by Dr. Arnold Nielson in 1987. HMX dates from 1941

LLM-105 was first produced at Lawrence Livermore National Laboratory in 1995. It can withstand high temperatures without blowing up, making it a candidate for warheads used in hypersonic missiles, which fly and manoeuvre at more than five times the speed of sound.

7. Consider the following statements:

I. It is expected that Majorana l chip will enable quantum computing.

II. Majorana l chip has been introduced by Amazon Web Services (AWS).

III. Deep learning is a subset of machine learning.

Which of the statements given above are correct?

(a) I and II only

(b) II and III only

(d) I, II and III

7. Ans-c

Explanation

Microsoft has recently unveiled a groundbreaking advancement in quantum computing with the introduction of its new quantum chip, Majorana 1.

Hence Statement 1 is correct

Amazons first-ever quantum computing chip is Ocelot.

Hence Statement 2 is incorrect

Deep learning is a subset of machine learning that uses multilayered neural networks, called deep neural networks, to simulate the complex decision-making power of the human brain. Some form of deep learning powers most of the artificial intelligence (AI) applications in our lives today

Hence Statement 3 is correct

8. With reference to monoclonal antibodies, often mentioned in news, consider the following statements:

I. They are man-made proteins.

II. They stimulate immunological function due to their ability to bind to specific antigens.

III. They are used in treating viral infections like that of Nipah virus.

Which of the statements given above are correct?

(a) I and II only

(b) II and III only

(d) I, II and III

8. Ans-d

Explanation

‘Mono’ means ‘one’ and ‘clone’ means ‘identical copy’. Monoclonal antibodies are identical copies of one type of antibody.

The production of monoclonal antibodies is an in vitro process by the use of tissue-culture techniques.

Hence statement 1 is correct

Antibodies are proteins produced by a type of white blood cell called a lymphocyte. Pathogens have proteins on their surface called antigens. When a pathogen infects the body, the lymphocytes recognise these antigens as foreign and attack them by producing antibodies.

Antibodies bind to specific antigens on pathogens. This means that only one type of antibody will bind to a matching antigen.

Hence statement 2 is correct

Monoclonal antibodies, as a highly effective immunotherapeutic treatment against viral infections, are now widely used for pre- or postexposure protection against infectious diseases caused by highly virulent and lethal viruses, such as Ebola virus (EBOV)and severe acute respiratory syndrome coronavirus 2 (SARS-CoV-2), and Nipah virus (NiV)

NiV41 and NiV42 – Two neutralising antibodies (NiV41 and NiV42) targeting the NiV receptor binding protein (RBP) were identified. antibodies derived from NiV41 display cross-reactivity against both NiV and Hendra virus (HeV), whereas the antibody based on NiV42 is only specific to NiV.

Hence statement 3 is correct

9. Consider the following statements:

I. No virus can survive in ocean waters.

II. No virus can infect bacteria.

III. No virus can change the cellular transcriptional activity in host cells.

How many of the statements given above are correct?

(a) Only one

(b) Only two

(d) None

9. Ans-d

Explanation

Viruses inhabit the world’s oceans in great numbers. One spoonful of seawater can hold up to a billion virus particles

Hence statement 1 is incorrect

A bacteriophage is a type of virus that infects bacteria. The word “bacteriophage” literally means “bacteria eater,” because bacteriophages destroy their host cells.

Hence statement 2 is incorrect

The ability to shut off host gene expression is a shared feature of many viral infections, and it is thought to promote viral replication by freeing host cell machinery and blocking immune responses.

Hence statement 3 is incorrect

10. Consider the following statements:

Statement I: Activated carbon is a good and an attractive tool to remove pollutants from effluent streams and to remediate contaminants from various industries.

Statement II:Activated carbon exhibits a large surface area and a strong potential for adsorbing heavy metals.

Statement III: Activated carbon can be easily synthesized from environmental wastes with high carbon content.

Which one of the following is correct in respect of the above statements?

(a) Both statement II and Statement III are correct and both of them explain Statement I

(b) Both Statement II and Statement III are correct but only one of them explains Statement I

(d) Neither Statement II nor Statement III is correct.

10. Ans-c

Explanation

Activated carbons are produced from carbon of vegetable origin (peat, lignite, coal or nutshells). The activation process creates an extensive pore structure that allows considerable adsorption onto an active surface area above 400 m2/g.

Activated carbon products can be put to a range of uses, including the purification, concentration and separation of gases from liquids, purifying drinking water, waste water and sewage treatment as well as controlling emissions. They also have further applications in the food, chemical and pharmaceutical industries.

Hence statement 2 is correct

The production method of activated carbon consists of the following main process steps:

Devolatilization and Carbonization of raw material

The Carbonization process comprises heating of the raw material to a temperature around 600 °C. This process also removes volatiles from the raw material

Activation of the carbonized material

The carbonized material is activated at temperatures around 950 °C with a gasification agent (usually steam) which removes a proportion of the carbon atoms by gasification

The steam activation process steps are performed in reactors such as rotary kilns, multiple hearth kilns, shaft kilns, and other high temperature kilns.

So It cannot be easily synthesised , it involves substantial costs .

Hence statement 3 is incorrect

So Only Statements II is correct and that explains Statement I

11. Consider the following statements:

Statement I: Studies indicate that carbon dioxide emissions from cement industry account for more than 5% of global carbon emissions.

Statement II: Silica-bearing clay is mixed with limestone while manufacturing cement.

Statement III: Limestone is converted into lime during clinker production for cement manufacturing.

Which one of the following is correct in respect of the above statements?

(a) Both Statement II and Statement III are correct and both of them explain Statement I

(b) Both Statement II and Statement III are correct but only one of them explains Statement I

(d) Neither Statement II nor Statement III is correct

11. Ans-a

Explanation

Global cement manufacturing produced 1.6 billion metric tonnes of CO2 in 2022, the latest year for which there are figures – that’s about 8% of the world’s total CO2 emissions.

Statement 1 is correct

The cement-making process can be divided into two basic steps:

Clinker (the main constituent of cement) is first made in a kiln with gas up to 2000°C, which heats raw materials such as limestone (calcium carbonate) with small quantities of other materials (e.g. clay) to 1,450°C. During this process, known as calcination, the calcium carbonate (limestone) is transformed into calcium oxide (lime), which then reacts with the other constituents from the raw material to form new minerals, collectively called clinker. This near-molten material is rapidly cooled to a temperature of 100 – 200°C.

Clinker is the primary component in cement and is extremely carbon-intensive, making up 90% of overall emissions from cement.

Clinker is then ground with gypsum and other materials to produce the grey powder known as cement.

Both Statement II and Statement III are correct and both of them explain Statement I

12. Consider the following statements:

Statement I: At the 28th United Nations Climate Change Conference (COP28), India refrained from signing the ‘Declaration on Climate and Health’.

Statement II: The COP 28 Declaration on Climate and Health is a binding declaration; and if signed, it becomes mandatory to decarbonize health sector.

Statement III: If India’s health sector is decarbonized, the resilience of its health-care system may be compromised.

Which one of the following is correct in respect of the above statements?

(a) Both Statement II and Statement III are correct and both of them explain Statement I

(b) Both Statement II and Statement III are correct but only one of the them explains Statement I

(d) Neither Statement II nor Statement III is correct

12. Ans-c

Explanation

The COP28 Declaration on Climate and Health is a non-binding, non-negotiated call to action and collective commitment that reflects the concerns and common position of countries on the importance of health within climate discourse and in the COP process

Statement 2 is incorrect

India has refused to sign the COP28 Declaration on Climate and Health, India cited the lack of practicality in curbing greenhouse gases use for cooling in the health sector, as the reason.

India expressed concerns that greenhouse gas reduction for cooling in the health sector could hinder its ability to meet the growing demands for medical services, particularly in remote and underserved areas

Only Statements III is correct and that explains Statement I

13. Consider the following statements: Statement

I: Scientific studies suggest that a shift is taking place in the Earth’s rotation and axis.

Statement II: Solar flares and associated coronal mass ejections bombarded the Earth’s outermost atmosphere with tremendous amount of energy.

Statement III: As the Earth’s polar ice melts, the water tends to move towards the equator.

Which one of the following is correct in respect of the above statements?

(a) Both Statements II and III are correct and both of them explain Statement I

(b) Both Statement II and Statement III are correct but only one of them explains Statement I

(d) Neither Statement II nor Statement III is correct

13. Ans-b

Explanation

Climate change is causing significant shifts in Earth’s rotation and axis . As polar ice melts and water flows towards the equator, it’s altering the planet’s mass distribution and slowing its rotation, leading to slightly longer days

Statements 1 & 3 are correct

Solar flares are huge explosions of electromagnetic radiation from the Sun. A flare appears as a sudden, intense brightening of a region on the Sun, lasting several minutes to hours.

Flares and solar eruptions can impact radio communications, electric power grids, navigation signals, and pose risks to spacecraft and astronauts.

Although solar flares can bombard Earth’s outermost atmosphere with tremendous amounts of energy, most of that energy is reflected back into space by the Earth’s magnetic field or radiated back to space as heat by the thermosphere.

Statement 2 is correct, but does not explain statement 1

14. Consider the following statements:

Statement I: Article 6 of the Paris Agreement on climate change is frequently discussed in global discussions on sustainable development and climate change.

Statement II: Article 6 of the Paris Agreement on climate change sets out the principles of carbon markets.

Statement III: Article 6 of the Paris Agreement on climate change intends to promote inter-country non-market strategies to reach their climate targets.

Which one of the following is correct in respect of the above statements?

(a) Both Statement II and Statement III are correct and both of them explain Statement I

(b) Both Statement II and Statement III are correct but only one of them explains Statement I

(d) Neither Statement II nor Statement III is correct

14. Ans-a

Explanation

Article 6 of the Paris Agreement sets out the principles for carbon markets.

Article 6.2 It enables countries to make mutual agreements that permit them to generate and transfer emission reduction units—known as Internationally Transferred Mitigation Outcomes (ITMOs).

Article 6.4 establishes a global carbon market overseen by the UN body called “Article 6.4 Supervisory Body”. It’s a multilateral mechanism that replaces the old Clean Development Mechanism, thus effectively establishing an international carbon market within the scope of the Paris Agreement.

Article 6.8 Non-market mechanisms refer to strategies that are not based on offset markets or emissions trading and include ways other than utilizing carbon markets for cooperation to reduce emissions and fulfil NDCs. These may include technology transfer, capacity building, policy support, mitigation and adaptation finance.

Advocates of NMAs have often argued that marketbased approaches under Article 6.2 and 6.4 do not serve any purpose on mitigation as offsetting does not seek to achieve overall emission reductions. Meanwhile, if any mitigation action has to be supported through cooperative action, it could only come through non-market approaches.

Both statements 2 &3 are correct and both of them explain Statement I

15. Which one of the following launched the ‘Nature Solutions Finance Hub for Asia and the Pacific’?

(a) The Asian Development Bank (ADB)

(b) The Asian Infrastructure Investment Bank (AIIB)

(d) The International Bank for Reconstruction and Development (IBRD)

15. Ans-a

Explanation

The Asian Development Bank (ADB) launched a Nature Solutions Finance Hub for Asia and the Pacific at COP28, which aims to attract at least $2 billion into investment programs that incorporate nature-based solutions, particularly focused on capital markets and other sources of private capital.

16. With reference to ‘Direct Air Capture’, an emerging technology, which of the following statements is/are correct?

I. It can be used as a way of carbon sequestration.

II. It can be a valuable approach for plastic production and in food processing.

III. In aviation, it can be a source of carbon for combining with hydrogen to create synthetic low-carbon fuel.

Select the correct answer using the code given below.

(a) I and II only

(b) III only

(d) None of the above statements is correct

16. Ans-c

Explanation

Direct air capture is a technology that uses chemical reactions to pull carbon dioxide out of air. When air moves over these chemicals, they selectively react with and trap CO2, allowing the other components of air to pass through.

Hence statement 1 is correct

The captured CO2 can be used as a feedstock for various carbon-based materials. It can be used in the production of cement, plastics, carbon fibers, and other industrial applications.

The captured carbon dioxide is able to be used in industrial processes, from carbonating drinks through to the manufacture of synthetic fuel

Hence statements 2 and 3 are correct

17. Regarding Peacock tarantula (Gooty tarantula), consider the following statements:

I. It is an omnivorous crustacean.

II. Its natural habitat in India is only limited to some forest areas.

III. In its natural habitat, it is an arboreal species.

Which of the statements given above is/are correct?

(a) I only

(b) I and III

(d) II and III

17. Ans-d

Explanation

Peacock tarantula (Gooty tarantula) belongs to Arachnida , its not a crustacean

Hence statement 1 is correct

The gooty sapphire ornamental tarantula (Poecilotheria metallica), known for its striking blue coloration, is a highly sought-after species in the global invertebrate pet market, this tarantula is renowned for its vivid metallic blue body, contrasting black markings, and orange or red accents on its legs.

Its naturally found in Seshachalam Biosphere Reserve in the Eastern Ghats of India

In 1899, it was found in a railway timber yard in Gooty, Andhra Pradesh. Hence the name Gooty Tarantula

Hence statements 2 and 3 are correct

The genus Poecilotheria belongs to the family Theraphosidae and is made up of arboreal species of spiders, which are known to occur in India and Sri Lanka. The genus is represented by eight species in India and seven in Sri Lanka.

18. Consider the following statements:

I. Carbon dioxide (CO2) emissions in India are less than 0.5 t CO2/ capita.

II. In terms of CO2 emissions from fuel combustion, India ranks second in Asia-Pacific region.

III. Electricity and heat producers are the largest source of CO2 emissions in India.

Which of the statements given above is/are correct?

(a) I and III only

(b) II only

(d) I, II and III

18. Ans-c

Explanation

CO2 emissions per capita in India 1.776tCO2 / Capita

Hence statement 1 is incorrect

In terms of CO2 emissions from fuel combustion, India ranks second in Asia-Pacific region after China.

Hence statement 2 is correct

CO2 emissions by sector, India

Electricity and Heat producers – 53%

Transport -13%

Industry sector -24%

Residential – 4%

Hence statement 3 is correct

19. Consider the following pairs:

Plant Description

I. Cassava : Woody shrub

I. Ginger : Herb with pseudostem

III. Malabar spinach : Herbaceous climber

IV. Mint : Annual shrub

V. Papaya : Woody shrub

How many of the above pairs are correctly matched?

(a) Only two

(b) Only three

(d) All the five

19. Ans-b

Explanation

Cassava : Manihot esculenta Crantz. (Euphorbiaceae) also called Cassava, manioc, yuca, balinghoy, mogo, mandioca, kamoteng kahoy, tapioca is a perennial woody shrub in the Euphorbiaceae (spurge family) native to South America but now grown in tropical and subtropical areas worldwide for the edible starchy roots (tubers), which are a major food source in the developing world. This food plant is also medicinally used to treat hypertension, headache, and other pains, irritable bowel syndrome and fever

Hence 1st pair is correctly matched

Ginger: The ginger plant is an erect herbaceous perennial growing from one to three feet in height. The stem is surrounded by the sheathing bases of the two-ranked leaves. The plant is erect, aerial shoots (pseudostem) with leaves, and an underground stem (rhizome). The fleshy and fibrous roots of ginger have indefinite growth from the base of the sprouts.

Hence 2nd pair is correctly matched

Malabar spinach: Malabar spinach, Basella alba, is a herbaceous green leafy vegetable. This fast-growing plant is a soft-stemmed, twining vine that can grow up to 10 feet long as an annual (longer as a perennial) but generally remains smaller in most gardens.

Hence 3rd pair is correctly matched

Mint : Mint is a herbaceous plant of the family Lamiaceae. It is distributed worldwide. The herb as a whole, its essential oils, or major chemical constituents are used for their flavor in various types of foods, confectionary, food preservatives, and antimicrobial agents to control the food-borne pathogens besides their usage in cosmetics and healthcare

Hence 4th pair is incorrectly matched

Papaya : Papayas are fast growing, woody , tree-like plants. It is a large herbaceous plant, usually with a single, straight trunk which can reach to 30 feet.

Hence 5th pair is incorrectly matched

20. With reference to the planet Earth, consider the following statements:

I. Rain forests produce more oxygen than that produced by oceans.

II. Marine phytoplankton and photo-synthetic bacteria produce about 50% of world’s oxygen.

III. Well-oxygenated surface water contains several folds higher oxygen than that in atmospheric air. Which of the statements given above is/are correct?

(a) I and II

(b) II only

(d) None of the above statements is correct

20. Ans-b

Explanation

The ocean generates 50 percent of the oxygen we need, absorbs 30 percent of all carbon dioxide emissions and captures 90 percent of the excess heat generated by these emissions. It is not just ‘the lungs of the planet’ but also its largest ‘carbon sink’ – a vital buffer against the impacts of climate change.

Hence statement 1 is incorrect

Scientists estimate that roughly half of the oxygen production on Earth comes from the ocean. The majority of this production is from oceanic plankton — drifting plants, algae, and some bacteria that can photosynthesize. One particular species, Prochlorococcus, is the smallest photosynthetic organism on Earth. But this little bacteria produces up to 20% of the oxygen in our entire biosphere.

Hence statement 2 is correct

Well-oxygenated surface water may only contain around 8 mg O2/l, while the air contains 210 mg O2/l.

The oxygen content in ocean water is highest at the surface for two primary reasons: this is where oxygen from the atmosphere dissolves into the ocean, and it is also the location where oxygen is produced by phytoplankton during photosynthesis. While respiration occurs in surface waters as well, the rate of oxygen production through photosynthesis exceeds the rate of oxygen consumption via respiration. It is important to note that despite the higher levels of dissolved oxygen at the surface, the concentration of oxygen in water is still significantly lower than that found in the air.

Hence statement 3 is incorrect

21. Consider the following statements about Raja Ram Mohan Roy:

I. He possessed great love and respect for the traditional philosophical systems of the East.

II. He desired his countrymen to accept the rational and scientific approach and the principle of human dignity and social equality of all men and women.

Which of the statements given above is/are correct?

(a) I only

(b) II only

(d) Neither I nor II

21. Ans-c

Explanation

Rammohun Roy, is rightly regarded as the first great leader of modern India. Rammohun Roy was moved by deep love for his people and country and worked hard all his life for their social, religious, intellectual, and political regeneration.

He was pained by the stagnation and corruption of contemporary Indian society which was at that time dominated by caste and convention.

Popular religion was full of superstitions and was exploited by ignorant and corrupt priests.

The upper classes weie selfish and often sacrificed social interest to their own narrow interests.

Rammohun Roy possessed great love and respect lor the traditional philosophic systems of the East; but, at the same time, he believed that Western culture alone would help regenerate Indian society.

Hence statement 1 is correct

In particular, he wanted his countrymen to accept the rational and scientific approach and the principle of human dignity and social equality of all men and women. He also wanted the introduction of modern capitalism and industry in the country.

Hence statement 2 is correct

22. Consider the following subjects with regard to Non-Cooperation Programme:

I. Boycott of law-courts and foreign cloth

II. Observance of strict non-violence

III. Retention of titles and honours without using them in public

IV. Establishment of Panchayats for settling disputes

How many of the above were parts of Non-Cooperation Programme?

(a) Only one

(b) Only two

(d) All the four

22. Ans-c

Explanation

The program of non-cooperation included, within its ambit,

The surrender of titles and honors,
Boycott of government-affiliated schools and colleges, law courts, foreign clothes, and could be extended to include resignation from government service
Mass civil disobedience during the non-payment of taxes.
National schools and colleges were to be set up,
Panchayats were to be established for settling disputes,
Hand-spinning and waving was to be encouraged and
People were asked to maintain Hindu-Muslim unity,
Give up untouchability and
Observe strict non-violence.

Gandhiji promised that if the program was fully implemented, Swaraj would be issued within a year.

The goal of the Congress was changed from attainment of self-government by constitutional and legal means to attainment of Swaraj by peaceful legitimate means.

23. The irrigation device called ‘Araghata’ was

(a) a water bag made of leather pulled over a pulley

(b) a large wheel with earthen pots tied to the outer ends of its spokes

(d) a large water bucket pulled up by rope directly by hand

23. Ans-b

Explanation

The Noria is a wheel which has pots or buckets attached to its rim without a chain for carrying the pots, or a gear mechanism to ensure a continuous flow of water. It could only be used to draw water from close to the surface or from a river.

The Persian wheel, on the other hand, had gears and a chain to carry the pots and was associated with a well.

The general consensus among many historians is that Araghatta does refer to something similar to the Persian wheel, if not exactly identical to it.

24. ‘Who among the following rulers in ancient India had assumed the titles ‘Mattavilasa’, ‘Vichitrachitta’ and ‘Gunabhara’?

(a) Mahendravarman I

(b) Simhavishnu

(d) Simhavarman

24. Ans-a

Explanation

Pallava king Mahendravarman I ruled from 600 to 630 A.D he had a passion for titles; some of his titles were Chetthakari (Temple builder), Chitrakara Puli (Tiger among painters), Mattavilasa(addicted to enjoyment) , Vichitrachitra (Myriad minded), Llitankura (charming offspring), Gunabhadra (Virtuous)

25. Fa-hien (Faxian), the Chinese pilgrim, travelled to India during the reign of

(a) Samudragupta

(b) Chandragupta II

(d) Skandagupta

25. Ans-b

Explanation

During the reign of Chandragupta II (375 to 414 A.D), India was visited by Fa-Hien, the Chinese traveller. He came to India by land route and went back by the sea route. He spent six years in India.

His main object in coming to India was to get Buddhist books on the discipline.

Fa-Hien visited Gandhara, Takshila and Peshawar, which were full of Buddhist monuments.

In Punjab, Fa-Hien saw many Buddhist monasteries, and he estimates the number of monks there at more than 10,000.

At Mathura alone, Fa-Hien found 20 monasteries with 3,000 Buddhist monks.

He visited Shravasti, which was full of Buddhist monuments. He visited Buddhist places like Lumbini, Vaishali, Nalanda, Gaya, Bodhgaya and Rajgriha.

Fa-Hien was very much impressed by the city of Pataliputra and also the palace of Ashoka.

According to him, the palace was with various halls , constructed walls and gates, carved designs . Ashoka’s palace was still in existence at the time of Fa-Hien’s visit.

Fa-Hien ought to have seen that with the revival of Hinduism under the patronage of Gupta kings, Buddhism had gone into the background.

He also visited Ceylon and stayed there for two years. From there, he went to Java and from there back to China.

26. Who among the following led a successful military campaign against the kingdom of Srivijaya, the powerful maritime State, which ruled the Malay Peninsula, Sumatra, Java and the neighbouring islands?

(a) Amoghavarsha (Rashtrakuta)

(b) Prataparudra (Kakatiya)

(d) Vishnuvardhana (Hoysala)

26. Ans-c

Explanation

Rajendra I(1012-1044 A.D) – He annexed whole of Ceylon, sent a large naval expedition against the Kingdom of Srivijaya. Srivijaya was a powerful maritime state which ruled the Malayan Peninsula, Sumatra, Java and other neighboring islands and controlled the sea routes from India and China.

The expedition was a complete success. The capital of Srivijaya was sacked, and King Sangrama Vijayothungavarman’s successor was taken captive. The campaign apparently ended with the restoration of the kingdom to its ruler, subject to his acknowledging Chola suzerainty

27. With reference to ancient India (600–322 BC), consider the following pairs:

Territorial Region River flowing in the region

I. Asmaka : Godavari

II. Kamboja : Vipas

III. Avanti : Mahanadi

IV. Kosala : Sarayu

How many of the pairs given above are correctly matched?

(a) Only one

(b) Only two

(d) All the four

27. Ans-b

Explanation

Buddhist and Jaina texts list 16 powerful states (solasa-mahajanapada) that flourished in the

early 6th century BCE. The Anguttara Nikaya’s list of the mahajanapadas is as follows: Kasi (Kashi),

Kosala (Koshala), Anga, Magadha, Vajji (Vrijji), Malla, Chetiya (Chedi), Vamsa (Vatsa), Kuru,

Panchala, Machchha (Matsya), Shurasena, Assaka (Ashmaka), Avanti, Gandhara, and Kamboja.

Asmaka : Assaka (Ashmaka) is located on the Godavari river. Its capital was Potana/Podana or

Potali, identified with modern Bodhan.

Hence 1st pair is correctly matched

Kamboja: Kamboja included the area around Rajaori, including the Hazara district of the North-West Frontier Province of Pakistan, and probably extended up to Kafiristan

Vipas is a Rigvedic name of the Beas river, which flows through the states of Himachal Pradesh and Punjab.

Hence 2nd pair is incorrectly matched

Avanti: Avanti, in the Malwa region of central India, was divided into a northern and a southern part by the Vindhyas. The two important towns of this kingdom were Mahishmati (identified with modern

Maheshwar) and Ujjayini (near modern Ujjain), both of which are mentioned in ancient texts as its

capital. The Narmada River flows through Avanti.

Hence 3rd pair is incorrectly matched

Kosala : The powerful kingdom of Kosala was bounded by the Sadanira (Gandak) on the east, the Gomati on the west, the Sarpika or Syandika (Sai) on the south, and the Nepal hills to the north. The Sarayu River divided it into a northern and a southern part.

Hence 4th pair is correctly matched

28. The first Gandharva Mahavidyalaya, a music training school, was set up in 1901 by Vishnu Digambar Paluskar in:

(a) Delhi

(b) Gwalior

(d) Lahore

28. Ans-d

Explanation

Vishnu Digambar Paluskar was born on August 18, 1872 at Kurundwad, Maharashtra. He was trained under Balkrishna Bua, who was a doyen of musicians in Maharashtra. From there, he toured Gwalior, Mathura, Bharatpur, Delhi and reached Punjab.

In Punjab, he lived in Amritsar for some time and shifted to Okara in Montgomery district to be the tutor of Sir Khem Singh’s children. After a few months there, he came to Lahore and here, on May 5, 1901, he founded Gandharva Mahavidyalaya.

This is one of the most interesting turning points in the history of modern music as it was the first school run by a middle-class musician without the direct patronage of Rajas and Maharajas.

The Vidyalaya school was run by public support, donations from richer classes, and funds raised by the concerts of Vishnu Digambar. It was truly a school of the people for the people. In 1908, a branch of Gandharva Mahavidyalaya was opened in Bombay.

Towards the end of his life, his time was devoted almost entirely to religious music, and finally his end also came amidst the singing of Ram Dhun (Ram’s name).

Paluskar’s Ram Dhun, ‘Raghupati Raghava Rajaram’ was sung at the head of the famous Dandi March led by Gandhiji in 1930.

29. Ashokan inscriptions suggest that the ‘Pradeshika’, ‘Rajuka’ and ‘Yukta’ were important officers at the:

(a) village-level administration

(b) district-level administration

(d) level of the central administration

29. Ans-b

Explanation

Ashokan inscriptions suggest that the pradeshika, rajuka, and yukta were important officers at the

district level. Rock edict 3 refers to these officers going on tours every five years in order to instruct

people in dhamma and for other purposes.

3rd Major Rock Edict (Translated)

Thus speaks the Beloved of the Gods, the king Piyadassi: When I had been consecrated twelve years I commanded as follows: Everywhere in my empire, the yuktas [subordinate officers] with the rajukas [rural administrators] and the pradesikas [heads of the districts], shall go on tour every five years, in order to instruct people in the Dhamma as well as for other purposes. It is good to be obedient to one’s mother and father, friends and relatives, to be generous to brahmans and Sramanas, it is good not to kill living beings, it is good not only to spend little, but to own the minimum of property. The council will instruct the officials to record the above, making it both manifest to the public and explaining why.

30. Consider the following statements in respect of the Non-Cooperation Movement:

I. The Congress declared the attainment of ‘Swaraj’ by all legitimate and peaceful means to be its objective.

II. It was to be implemented in stages with civil disobedience and non-payment of taxes for the next stage only if ‘Swaraj’ did not come within a year and the Government resorted to repression.

Which of the statements given above is/are correct?

(a) I only

(b) II only

(d) Neither I nor II

30. Ans-a

Explanation

Gandhi and the National Congress decided in September 1920 to launch a non-violent non-cooperation movement and continue it till the Punjab and Khilafat wrongs were removed and Swaraj established. Gandhi gave the slogan “Swaraj in a year”.

Gandhiji proposed that the movement should unfold in stages.

It should begin with the surrender of titles that the government awarded, and a boycott of civil services, army, police, courts and legislative councils, schools, and foreign goods.

Then, in case the government used repression, a full civil disobedience campaign would be launched.

Gandhiji promised that if the program was fully implemented, Swaraj would be issued within a year.

Hence statement 2 is incorrect

The goal of the Congress was changed from attainment of self-government by constitutional and legal means to attainment of Swaraj by peaceful legitimate means.

Hence statement 1 is correct

31. With reference to investments, consider the following:

I. Bonds

II. Hedge Funds

III. Stocks

IV. Venture Capital

How many of the above are treated as Alternative Investment Funds?

(a) Only one

(b) Only two

(d) All31.Ans-b

Explanation

Alternate Investment Fund (“AIF”)

Alternative Investment Fund or AIF means any fund established or incorporated in India which is a privately pooled investment vehicle which collects funds from sophisticated investors, whether Indian or foreign, for investing it in accordance with a defined investment policy for the benefit of its investors.

Alternative Investment Funds can be of different types based on their investment strategy and types of assets under management

Venture Capital Fund (VCF)

VCF means “an AIF which invests primarily in unlisted securities of start-ups, emerging or early-stage venture capital undertakings mainly involved in new products, new services, technology or intellectual property right based activities or a new business model and shall include an angel fund.

Angel Fund

Angel Fund means “a sub-category of Venture Capital Fund under Category I AIF that raises funds from angel investors and invests in accordance with the SEBI (AIF) Regulations

Private Equity Fund

Private Equity Fund PE Fund means “an AIF which invests primarily in equity or equity linked instruments or partnership interests of investee companies according to the stated objective of the fund.

Special Situation Fund

Special Situation Fund means a Category I AIF that invests in special situation assets in accordance with its investment objectives and may act as a resolution applicant under the Insolvency and Bankruptcy Code, 2016

Debt Fund Debt

Debt Fund Debt Fund means “an AIF which invests primarily in debt securities of listed or unlisted investee companies or in securitised debt instruments according to the stated objectives of the Fund

Infrastructure Fund

Infrastructure Fund means “an AIF which invests primarily in unlisted securities or partnership interest or listed debt or securitised debt instruments of investee companies or special purpose vehicles engaged in or formed for the purpose of operating, developing or holding infrastructure projects

SME Fund

SME Fund means “an AIF which invests primarily in unlisted securities of investee companies which are SMEs or securities of those SMEs which are listed or proposed to be listed on a SME exchange or SME segment of an exchange

Hedge Fund

Hedge Fund means “an AIF which employs diverse or complex trading strategies and invests and trades in securities having diverse risks or complex products including listed and unlisted derivatives”.

Social Venture Fund

Social Venture Fund means “an AIF which invests primarily in securities or units of social ventures and which satisfies social performance norms laid down by the fund and whose investors may agree to receive restricted or muted returns”.

Social venture is a trust or society or company or venture capital undertaking or limited liability partnership formed with the purpose of promoting social welfare or solving social problems or providing social benefits.

Hence 2 and 4 are correct

Bond

A bond is a contract between the borrower (the issuer) and the lender (the investor). In other words, a bond allows a company to raise money from a large number of investors by breaking up the total amount borrowed into small, equal components. Investors can subscribe to these bonds as per their investible surplus.

Stocks

Stocks/Shares represent part-ownership in a business. Each shareholder holds ownership commensurate with the number of shares held in a company out of the total issued shares.

Stocks are financial securities representing ownership in companies , Stocks of company gets divided into shares i.e . a unit of stock is share .

32. Which of the following are the sources of income for the Reserve Bank of India?

I. Buying and selling Government bonds

II. Buying and selling foreign currency

III. Pension fund management

IV. Lending to private companies

V. Printing and distributing currency notes

Select the correct answer using the code given below:

(a) I and II only

(b) II, III and IV

(d) I, II and V

32. Ans-a

Explanation

The size of the Reserve Bank’s balance sheet increased by 11.08 per cent for the year ended March 31, 2024. While income for the year increased by 17.04 per cent, expenditure decreased by 56.30 per cent. The year ended with an overall surplus of ₹2,10,873.99 crore as against ₹87,416.22 crore in the previous year, resulting in an increase of 141.23 per cent.

Trends in Income, Expenditure, Net Income and Surplus Transferred to the Central Government

RBI Expenditure

The Reserve Bank incurs expenditure in the course of performing its statutory functions by way of agency charges/commission, printing of notes, expenditure on remittance of currency, besides employee related and other expenses .

Hence 5 is incorrect

RBI Income

The components of Reserve Bank’s income are ‘Interest’ and ‘Other Income’ including

(i) Discount

(ii) Exchange

(iii) Commission

(iv) Amortisation of premium/ discount on Foreign and Rupee Securities

(v) Profit/ Loss on sale and redemption of Foreign and Rupee Securities

(vi) Depreciation on Rupee Securities inter portfolio transfer

(vii) Rent Realised

(viii) Profit/ Loss on sale of Bank’s property, and

(ix) Provision no longer required and Miscellaneous Income.

Certain items of income interest on LAF repo, Repo in foreign security and exchange gain/ loss from foreign exchange transactions

Hence 1 and 2 are correct

Pension fund management and Lending to private companies are not functions of RBI

Hence 3 and 4 are incorrect

33. With reference to the Government of India, consider the following information:

	Organization	Some of its functions	It works under
I.	Directorate of Enforcement	Enforcement of the Fugitive Economic Offenders Act, 2018	Internal Security Division- I, Ministry of Home Affairs
II.	Directorate of Revenue Intelligence	Enforces the Provisions of the Customs Act, 1962	Department of Revenue, Ministry of Finance
III.	Directorate General of Systems and Data Management	Carrying out big data analytics to assist tax better policy and nabbing tax evaders	Department of Revenue, Ministry of Finance

In how many of the above rows is the information correctly matched?

(a) Only one
(b) Only two
(c) All the three
(d) None

33. Ans-a

Explanation

The Directorate of Enforcement or the ED under Department of Revenue , Ministry of Finance is a multi-disciplinary organization mandated with investigation of economic crimes and violations of foreign exchange laws.

With the onset of the process of economic liberalization, FERA, 1973, which was a regulatory law, was repealed and in its place, a new law viz. the Foreign Exchange Management Act, 1999 (FEMA) came into operation w.e.f. 1st June 2000. Further, in tune with the International Anti Money Laundering regime, the Prevention of Money Laundering Act, 2002 (PMLA) was enacted and ED was entrusted with its enforcement w.e.f. 1st July 2005. Recently, with the increase in number of cases relating to economic offenders taking shelter in foreign countries, the Government has passed the Fugitive Economic Offenders Act, 2018 (FEOA) and ED is entrusted with its enforcement with effect from 21st April, 2018

Hence 1st row is incorrectly matched

The Directorate of Revenue Intelligence is the apex anti-smuggling agency of India, working under the Central Board of Indirect Taxes & Customs, Department of Revenue, Ministry of Finance, Government of India. It is tasked with detecting and curbing smuggling of contraband, including drug trafficking and illicit international trade in wildlife and environmentally sensitive items, as well as combating commercial frauds related to international trade and evasion of Customs duty. Its mandate includes detecting and preventing the smuggling of contraband such as drugs, illicit wildlife products, and environmentally sensitive items, as well as tackling commercial frauds and Customs duty evasion under the Customs Act, 1962.

Hence 2nd row is correctly matched

The Central Board of Indirect Taxes & Customs, Department of Revenue, Ministry of Finance, has initiated a number of projects aimed at harnessing Information & Communication Technology (ICT) The DG (Systems& Data Management) has been entrusted with the implementation of the projects related to Information & Communication Technology.

The Directorate General of Systems & Data Management

is responsible for the design, development, programming, testing, implementation and maintenance of Customs and Central Excise automated systems, and for overseeing and managing the projects sanctioned by CBIC related to IT.
is responsible for the management of all Centrally deployed Customs and Central Excise computer facilities, hardware, software, data communications
in the automated environment, acts as a point of reference and validation concerning procedural changes in Customs and Central Excise, in addition to being a resource centre on business process issues.
is responsible for identifying and evaluating new technologies for application to automated systems within the department.
is responsible for developing and maintaining all policy and subsequently, on the implementation of centralized systems, the operational aspects of the Department’s Computer Security.
Establishes requirements for computer-to-computer interfaces between the department and various trading partners and government agencies
Represents Customs and Central Excise on matters related to automated processing and systems development
Implements information resource and data management

Directorate General of Systems & Data Management is not associatedwith big data analytics

Hence 3rd row is incorrectly matched

34. Consider the following statements:

I. The Reserve Bank of India mandates all the listed companies in India to submit a Business

Responsibility and Sustainability Report (BRSR).

II. In India, a company submitting a BRSR makes disclosures in the report that are largely non-financial in nature.

Which of the statements given above is/are correct?

(a) I only

(b) II only

(d) Neither I nor II

34. Ans-b

Explanation

Securities and Exchange Board of India (SEBI) has introduced the Business Responsibility and Sustainability Reporting (BRSR) guidelines for listed companies.

Hence, statement 1 is incorrect.

Business Responsibility and Sustainability Reporting (BRSR) is an integrated reporting framework. Its purpose is to increase the level of reporting on environmental, social, and governance (ESG) performance. BRSR requires enterprises to report ESG performance indicators to ensure that they practise responsible business and achieve sustainable development.

Hence, statement 2 is correct.

35. Consider the following statements:

Statement I: In India, income from allied agricultural activities like poultry farming and wool rearing in rural areas is exempted from any tax.

Statement II: In India, rural agricultural land is not considered a capital asset under the provisions of the Income-tax Act, 1961.

Which one of the following is correct in respect of the above statements?

(a) Both Statement I and Statement II are correct and Statement II explains Statement I

(b) Both Statement I and Statement II are correct but Statement II doesnot explain Statement I

(d) Statement I is not correct but Statement II is correct

35. Ans-d

Explanation

Agricultural income is exempted from tax under the Income-tax Act, 1961. It is important to note that income from allied agricultural activities like poultry farming, wool rearing, etc. are not considered as agricultural income. Hence, tax may be levied on incomes from such activities. However, many states levy a tax on agricultural income as per their respective State’s policy

Hence, statement 1 is incorrect.

Agricultural land in rural areas in India is not considered a capital asset under section 45 of the Income-tax Act,1961. Therefore any gains from its sale are not taxable under the head ‘Capital Gains’.

Hence, statement 2 is correct.

36. Consider the following statements:

I. India has joined the Minerals Security Partnership as a member.

II. India is a resource-rich country in all the 30 critical minerals that it has identified.

III. The Parliament in 2023 has amended the Mines and Minerals (Development and Regulation) Act, 1957 empowering the Central Government to exclusively auction mining lease and composite license for certain critical minerals.

Which of the statements given above are correct?

(a) I and II only

(b) II and III only

(d) I, II and III

36. Ans-c

Explanation

Mineral Security Partnership (MSP)- It is a US-led collaboration of 23 countries that aims to catalyse public and private investment in critical mineral supply chains globally.

India’s inclusion assumes significance given that one of the key elements is the ambitious shift in the mobility space through the conversion of a large part of public and private transport to electric vehicles.

Hence, statement 1 is correct.

A total of 30 minerals were found to be most critical for India , India is 100% import-dependent for certain elements.

Hence, statement 2 is incorrect.

Amended Mines and Minerals (Development and Regulation) Act, 1957 empowers the Central Government to exclusively auction mining lease and composite licence for certain critical minerals .

Hence, statement 3 is correct.

37.Consider the following statements:

Statement I: As regards returns from an investment in a company, generally, bondholders are considered to be relatively at lower risk than stockholders.

Statement II: Bondholders are lenders to a company whereas stockholders are its owners.

Statement III: For repayment purpose, bondholders are prioritized over stockholders by a company.

Which one of the following is correct in respect of the above statements?

(a) Both Statement II and Statement III are correct and both of them explain Statement I

(b) Both Statement I and Statement II are correct and Statement I explains Statement II

(d) Neither Statement II nor Statement III is correct

37. Ans-a

Explanation

Bond

Bondholders are providing capital to a company in return for interest payments. Bonds inherently carry less risk compared to stocks..

Stocks

Stocks and shares represent partial ownership in a business. Each shareholder’s ownership stake is proportional to the number of shares they own relative to the total issued shares of the company.

Stocks are financial securities representing ownership in companies , Stocks of company gets divided into shares i.e . a unit of stock is share .

Investing in stocks offers shareholders the potential for profit through capital appreciation and income through dividends, although it does carry a higher level of risk.

Hence Both Statement II and Statement III are correct and both of them explain Statement I

38. Consider the following statements:

I. India accounts for a very large portion of all equity option contracts traded globally thus exhibiting a great boom.

II. India’s stock market has grown rapidly in the recent past even overtaking Hong Kong’s at some point of time.

III. There is no regulatory body either to warn the small investors about the risks of options trading or to act on unregistered financial advisors in this regard.

Which of the statements given above are correct?

(a) I and II only

(b) II and III only

(d) I, II and III

38. Ans-a

Explanation

Equity options trading in India has cooled this year after exponential growth since the pandemic. Fees from options traded on the NSE grew just 2% this year through April, sharply lower than the 92% growth in the same period last year, according to exchange data.

The slowdown was triggered by Sebi, which imposed several restrictions on trading options including higher minimum investment limits and an increase in lot sizes since November to protect retail traders — 90% of whom lost money trading options.

Hence, statement 1 is correct & statement 3 is incorrect

In mid-September 2024 India had market cap 17 per cent higher than Hong Kong’s. Now, Hong Kong’s market cap exceeds India’s .

Hence statement 2 is correct

39. Consider the following statements:

Statement I: Circular economy reduces the emissions of greenhouse gases.

Statement II: Circular economy reduces the use of raw materials as inputs.

Statement III: Circular economy reduces wastage in the production process.

Which one of the following is correct in respect of the above statements?

(a) Both Statement II and Statement III are correct and both of them explain Statement I

(b) Both Statement II and Statement III are correct but only one of them explains Statement I

(d) Neither Statement II nor Statement III is correct

39. Ans-a

Explanation

Our current economic system can be considered a “linear economy”, built on a model of extracting raw materials from nature, turning them into products, and then discarding them as waste. Currently, only 7.2 percent of used materials are cycled back into our economies after use. This has a significant burden on the environment and contributes to the climate, biodiversity, and pollution crises.

Circular economy refers to a system that aims to minimize the use of energy, natural resources, and waste generation by closing loops of utilities and materials flows. It involves minimizing inputs of raw materials, reducing waste outputs, and reintegrating products into the system when they reach the end of their life .

For Example – In buildings and construction, circular solutions can include reducing virgin material use, re-using existing materials in circulation, or substituting carbon-intensive materials for regenerative alternatives such as timber.

Besides helping tackle the problem of pollution, circular economy can play a critical role in solving other complex challenges such as climate change and biodiversity loss.

Hence, statement 2 is correct & statement 3 is correct and explain statement 1

40. Consider the following statements:

I. Capital receipts create a liability or cause a reduction in the assets of the Government.

II. Borrowings and disinvestment are capital receipts.

III. Interest received on loans creates a liability of the Government.

Which of the statements given above are correct?

(a) I and II only

(b) II and III only

(d) I, II and III

40. Ans-a

Explanation

Capital Receipts- All those receipts of the government which create liability or reduce financial assets are termed as capital receipts.

Capital Receipts include recovery of loans , Borrowings and other liabilities, Other receipts (mainly PSU disinvestment)

Hence, statements 1& 2 are correct

Revenue Receipts: Revenue receipts are those receipts that do not lead to a claim on the government.They are divided into tax and non-tax revenues. Non-tax revenue of the central government mainly consists of interest receipts on account of loans by the central government, dividends and profits on investments made by the government, fees and other receipts for services rendered by the government. Cash grants-in-aid from foreign countries and international organisations are also included

Hence, statement 3 is incorrect

41. Consider the following countries:

I. Austria

II. Bulgaria

III. Croatia

IV. Serbia

V. Sweden

VI. North Macedonia

How many of the above are members of the North Atlantic Treaty Organization?

(a) Only three

(b) Only four

(d) All the six

41.Ans-b

Explanation

The North Atlantic Treaty Organization was created in 1949 by the United States, Canada, and several Western European nations to provide collective security against the Soviet Union.

Formed in 1949 with the signing of the Washington Treaty, NATO is a security alliance of from North America and Europe. NATO’s fundamental goal is to safeguard the Allies’ freedom and security by political and military means.

At present, NATO has 32 member countries.

NATO’s original members in 1949 were Belgium, Canada, Denmark, France, Iceland, Italy, Luxembourg, the Netherlands, Norway, Portugal, the United Kingdom, and the United States.

The countries that joined NATO after its founding are Greece and Turkey (1952); West Germany (1955; from 1990 as Germany); Spain (1982); the Czech Republic, Hungary, and Poland (1999); Bulgaria, Estonia, Latvia, Lithuania, Romania, Slovakia, and Slovenia (2004); Albania and Croatia (2009); Montenegro (2017); North Macedonia (2020); Finland (2023); and Sweden (2024).

Austria , Serbia are not members of NATO

42. Consider the following countries:

I. Bolivia

II. Brazil

III. Colombia

IV. Ecuador

V. Paraguay

VI. Venezuela

Andes mountains pass through how many of the above countries?

(a) Only two

(b) Only three

(d) Only five

42. Ans-c

Explanation

The Andes Mountains form the largest continental range of mountains in the world. They extend about 4,500 miles along the western coast of South America. The Andes Mountains go through seven countries in the continent of South America. Ranging from north to south they are Venezuela, Columbia, Ecuador, Peru, Bolivia, Chile, and Argentina. The Andes Mountain range has many very high peaks. The only higher mountains in the world are the Himalayas in Asia. The highest mountain in the Andes range is Mount Aconcagua in Argentina: it measures almost 23,000 feet high,

43. Consider the following water bodies:

I. Lake Tanganyika

II. Lake Tonlé Sap

III. Patos Lagoon

Through how many of them does the equator pass?

(a) Only one

(b) Only two

(d) None

43. Ans-d

Explanation

Lake Tanganyika is situated in central Africa and is recognized as one of the deepest and oldest freshwater lakes in the world. It lies along the 6.25° S latitude, south of the Equator

Lake Tonle Sap, one of the largest freshwater lakes in Cambodia,It is located at the latitude of 13°N, lying north to the equator

Patos Lagoon, known locally as Lagoa dos Patos, is a significant coastal lagoon in southern Brazil and ranks among the largest lagoons in South America. This lagoon lies around 30° south of the Equator.

44. Consider the following statements about turmeric during the year 2022–23:

I. India is the largest producer and exporter of turmeric in the world.

II. More than 30 varieties of turmeric are grown in India.

III. Maharashtra, Telangana, Karnataka and Tamil Nadu are major turmeric producing States in India.

Which of the statements given above are correct?

(a) I and II only

(b) II and III only

(d) I, II and III

44. Ans-d

Explanation

India is the largest producer, consumer and exporter of turmeric in the world. In the year 2022-23, an area of 3.24 lakh ha was under turmeric cultivation in India with a production of 11.61 lakh tonnes (over 75% of global turmeric production).

Hence, statement 1 is correct

More than 30 varieties of Turmeric are grown in India and it is grown in over 20 states in the country. The largest producing states of Turmeric are Maharashtra, Telangana, Karnataka and Tamil Nadu.

Hence, statements 2&3 are incorrect

India has more than 62% share of world trade in turmeric. During 2022-23, 1.534 lakh tonnes of turmeric and turmeric products valued at 207.45 million USD was exported . The leading export markets for Indian Turmeric are Bangladesh, UAE, USA and Malaysia.

45. Which of the following are the evidences of the phenomenon of continental drift?

I. The belt of ancient rocks from Brazil coast matches with those from Western Africa.

II. The gold deposits of Ghana are derived from the Brazil plateau when the two continents lay side by side.

III. The Gondwana system of sediments from India is known to have its counterparts in six different landmasses of the Southern Hemisphere.

Select the correct answer using the code given below:

(a) I and III only

(b) I and II only

(d) II and III only

45. Ans-c

Explanation

Evidence in Support of the Continental Drift

The Matching of Continents (Jig-Saw-Fit)

The shorelines of Africa and South America facing each other have a remarkable and unmistakable match. It may be noted that a map produced using a computer programme to find the best fit of the Atlantic margin was presented by Bullard in 1964. It proved to be quite perfect. The match was tried at 1,000- fathom line instead of the present shoreline

Rocks of Same Age Across the Oceans

The radiometric dating methods developed in the recent period have facilitated correlating the rock formation from different continents across the vast ocean. The belt of ancient rocks of 2,000 million years from Brazil coast matches with those from western Africa. The earliest marine deposits along the coastline of South America and Africa are of the Jurassic age. This suggests that the ocean did not exist prior to that time.

Hence, statement 1 is correct

Tillite

It is the sedimentary rock formed out of deposits of glaciers. The Gondawana system of sediments from India is known to have its counterparts in six different landmasses of the Southern Hemisphere. At the base, the system has thick tillite indicating extensive and prolonged glaciation. Counterparts of this succession are found in Africa, Falkland Island, Madagascar, Antarctica and Australia. Overall resemblance of the Gondawana-type sediments clearly demonstrates that these landmasses had remarkably similar histories. The glacial tillite provides unambiguous evidence of palaeoclimates and also of drifting of continents

Hence, statement 3 is correct

Placer Deposits

The occurrence of rich placer deposits of gold in the Ghana coast and the absolute absence of source rock in the region is an amazing fact. The gold bearing veins are in Brazil and it is obvious that the gold deposits of the Ghana are derived from the Brazil plateau when the two continents lay side by side.

Hence, statement 2 is correct

Distribution of Fossils

When identical species of plants and animals adapted to living on land or in fresh water are found on either side of the marine barriers, a problem arises regarding accounting for such distribution. The observations that Lemurs occur in India, Madagascar and Africa led some to consider a contiguous landmass ‘Lemuria’ linking these three landmasses. Mesosaurus was a small reptile adapted to shallow brackish water. The skeletons of these are found only in two localities: the Southern Cape province of South Africa and Iraver formations of Brazil. The two localities are presently 4,800 km apart with an ocean in between them.

46. Consider the following statements:

Statement I: The amount of dust particles in the atmosphere is more in subtropical and temperate areas than in equatorial and polar regions.

Statement II: Subtropical and temperate areas have less dry winds.

Which one of the following is correct in respect of the above statements?

(a) Both Statement I and Statement II are correct and Statement II explains Statement I

(b) Both Statement I and Statement II are correct but Statement II doesnot explain Statement I

(d) Statement I is not correct but Statement II is correct

46. Ans-c

Explanation

Dust Particles Atmosphere has a sufficient capacity to keep small solid particles, which may originate from different sources and include sea salts, fine soil, smoke-soot, ash, pollen, dust and disintegrated particles of meteors. Dust particles are generally concentrated in the lower layers of the atmosphere; yet, convectional air currents may transport them to great heights. The higher concentration of dust particles is found in subtropical and temperate regions due to dry winds in comparison to equatorial and polar regions. Dust and salt particles act as hygroscopic nuclei around which water vapour condenses to produce clouds.

Hence, statement 1 is correct & statement 2 is incorrect

47. Consider the following statements:

Statement I: In January, in the Northern Hemisphere, the isotherms bend equatorward while crossing the landmasses, and poleward while crossing the oceans.

Statement II: In January, the air over the oceans is warmer than that over the landmasses in the Northern Hemisphere.

Which one of the following is correct in respect of the above statements?

(a) Both Statement I and Statement II are correct and Statement II explains Statement I

(b) Both Statement I and Statement II are correct but Statement II doesnot explain Statement I

(d) Statement I is not correct but Statement II is correct

47. Ans-a

Explanation

The lines drawn on maps joining the places of equal temperature relative to sea level are called isotherms

In January, the sun shines vertically overhead near the tropic of Capricorn. Hence, it is summer in southern hemisphere and winter in the northern hemisphere.

Isotherms are generally parallel to the latitude. Generally, isotherms are straight but they bend at the junction of continents and oceans due to differential heating and cooling of land and water. The deviation from this general trend is more pronounced in January than in July, especially in the northern hemisphere.

In January, isotherms suddenly bend poleward while passing through warm portions of oceans and bend equatorward while passing through cold portions of the oceans in January in northern hemisphere while the trend is opposite in July.

Hence, statement 1 is correct

In the northern hemisphere the land surface area is much larger than in the southern hemisphere. Hence, the effects of land mass and the ocean currents are well pronounced. This can be seen on the North Atlantic Ocean. The presence of warm ocean currents, Gulf Stream and North Atlantic drift, make the Northern Atlantic Ocean warmer and the isotherms bend towards the north. Over the land the temperature decreases sharply and the isotherms bend towards south in Europe.

Hence, statement 2 is correct & explains statement 1

The distribution of surface air temperature in the month of January

48. Consider the following statements:

Statement I: In the context of effect of water on rocks, chalk is known as a very permeable rock whereas clay is known as quite an impermeable or least permeable rock.

Statement II: Chalk is porous and hence can absorb water.

Statement III: Clay is not at all porous.

Which one of the following is correct in respect of the above statements?

(a) Both Statement II and Statement III are correct and both of them explain Statement I

(b) Both Statement II and Statement III are correct but only one of them explains Statement I

(d) Neither Statement II nor Statement III is correct

48. Ans-c

Explanation

Chalk is characterized by its high porosity and permeability, which enables it to easily absorb water. Its structure consists of numerous small pores that allow water to pass through effortlessly. On the other hand, clay possesses exceptionally fine pores that render it nearly impermeable. Although it is not entirely devoid of porosity, the minuscule size of its pores significantly restricts water flow, making it much less permeable than chalk.

Hence, only Statement II is correct and it explains Statement I.

49. Consider the following statements:

I. Without the atmosphere, temperature would be well below freezing point everywhere on

the Earth’s surface.

II. Heat absorbed and trapped by the atmosphere maintains our planet’s average temperature.

III. Atmosphere’s gases, like carbon dioxide, are particularly good at absorbing and trapping radiation.

Which of the statements given above are correct?

(a) I and III only

(b) I and II only

(d) II and III only

49. Ans-d

Explanation

The atmosphere functions as a protective blanket of air enveloping the Earth, effectively retaining the heat necessary to maintain a livable environment—often referred to as Goldilocks’ planet. Within the atmosphere, certain gases, such as carbon dioxide and water vapor, are capable of absorbing the sun’s infrared radiation. This process helps to prevent surface temperatures from plummeting during the night, when the sun is absent.

Additionally, the atmosphere regulates the amount of solar energy that reaches the Earth’s surface. This is why regions with thicker layers of atmosphere, such as the poles, receive less solar energy, despite receiving the same radiation as equatorial regions.

Without the atmosphere, surface temperatures on Earth would experience extreme fluctuations, reaching up to 100 degrees Celsius during the day and dropping to near freezing at night, similar to the conditions observed on the moon. This freezing impact would be particularly pronounced in areas where sunlight strikes at an angle, such as the poles and temperate regions, while equatorial regions may still experience temperatures above freezing, as evidenced by the north and south poles of the moon.

Hence statement 1 is incorrect

Consequently, the assertion in statement I is incorrect. Conversely, the greenhouse effect describes the mechanism by which certain gases trap heat close to the Earth’s surface, contributing to a warmer temperature than would otherwise exist.

Hence, statement 2 is correct.

Greenhouse gases include carbon dioxide, methane, ozone, nitrous oxide, chlorofluorocarbons, and water vapor.

Hence, statement 3 is correct.

50. Consider the following statements about the Rashtriya Gokul Mission:

I. It is important for the upliftment of rural poor, as majority of low producing indigenous animals are with small and marginal farmers and landless labourers.

II. It was initiated to promote indigenous cattle and buffalo rearing and conservation in a scientific and holistic manner.

Which of the statements given above is/are correct?

(a) I only

(b) II only

(d) Neither I nor II

50. Ans-c

Explanation

The Rashtriya Gokul Mission (RGM) is being implemented for development and conservation of indigenous bovine breeds since December 2014. The scheme is important in enhancing milk production and productivity of bovines to meet growing demand of milk and making dairying more remunerative to the rural farmers of the country. The scheme is also continued under umbrella scheme Rashtriya Pashudhan Vikas Yojna from 2021 to 2026 with a budget outlay of Rs.2400 crore. The RGM will result in enhanced productivity and benefit of the programme, percolating to all cattle and buffaloes of India especially with small and marginal farmers. This programme will also benefit women in particular since over 70% of the work involved in livestock farming is undertaken by women.

Objectives:

a) To enhance productivity of bovines and increasing milk production in a sustainable manner using advance technologies.

b) To propagate use of high genetic merit bulls for breeding purposes.

c) To enhance Artificial insemination coverage through strengthening breeding network and delivery of Artificial insemination services at farmers doorstep.

d) To promote indigenous cattle & buffalo rearing and conservation in a scientific and holistic manner.

Hence, statements 1 and 2 are correct.

51. Consider the following statements:

I. Panchayats at the intermediate level exist in all States.
II. To be eligible to be a Member of a Panchayat at the intermediate level, a person should attain the age of thirty years.
III. The Chief Minister of a State constitutes a commission to review the internal position of Panchayats.

Which of the statements given above are not correct\

(a) I and II only
(b) II and III only
(c) I and III only
(d) I, II and III

51. Ans-d

Explanation

Article 243 B. Constitution of Panchayats.—(1) There shall be constituted in every State, Panchayats at the village, intermediate and district levels.

(2) Notwithstanding anything in clause (1), Panchayats at the intermediate level may not be constituted in a State having a population not exceeding twenty lakhs.

Hence statement 1 is incorrect

243F. Disqualifications for membership.—(1) A person shall be disqualified for being chosen as, and for being, a member of a Panchayat—

(a) If he is so disqualified by or under any law for the time being inforce for the purposes of elections to the Legislature of the Stateconcerned: Provided that no person shall be disqualified on the ground that he is less than twenty-five years of age, if he has attained the age of twenty one years;

Hence statement 2 is incorrect

243-I. Constitution of Finance Commission to review financial position.—(1) The Governor of a State shall, as soon as may be within one year from the commencement of the Constitution (Seventy-third Amendment)Act, 1992, and thereafter at the expiration of every fifth year, constitute a Finance Commission to review the financial position of the Panchayats and to make recommendations to the Governor.

Hence statement 3 is incorrect

52. Consider the following statements in respect of BIMSTEC:

I. It is a regional organisation consisting of seven member States till January 2025.
II. It came into existence with the signing of the Dhaka Declaration, 1999.
III. Bangladesh, India, Sri Lanka, Thailand and Nepal from the United Kingdom, 1999.
IV. In BIMSTEC, the subsector of ‘tourism’ is being led by India.

Which of the statements given above is /are correct ?

(a) I and II
(b) II and III
(c) I and IV
(d) I only

52. Ans-d

Explanation

The organization came into existence on 6 June 1997 through the ‘Bangkok Declaration’. It was originally formed with four Member States with the acronym ‘BIST-EC’ (Bangladesh, India, Sri Lanka and Thailand Economic Cooperation). Following inclusion of Myanmar in December 1997, it was renamed ‘BIMST-EC’ (Bangladesh, India, Myanmar, Sri Lanka and Thailand Economic Cooperation). With the inclusion of Nepal and Bhutan in 2004, the name of the grouping was changed to BIMSTEC.

Hence only statements 1 is correct

53. Who amongst the following are members of the Jury to select the recipient of Gandhi Peace Prize?

I. The President of India
II. The Prime Minister of India
III. The Chief Justice of India
IV. The Leader of Opposition in the Lok Sabha

Select the correct answer using the code given below .

(a) II and IV only
(b) I, II and III
(c) II, III and IV
(d) I and III only

53. Ans-c

Explanation

As per para 2 of Chapter VI of Code of Procedure of Gandhi Peace Prize, the Jury shall comprise of the following persons:-

1.	Prime Minister of India	Chairman (ex-officio)
2.	Chief Justice of India	Member (ex-officio)
3.	Leader of the Opposition recognised as such in the Lok Sabha or where there is no such Leader of Opposition then the Leader of the single largest opposition party in that House	Member (ex-officio)
4.	Eminent person	Nominated Member
5.	Eminent person	Nominated member

This annual award is given to individuals, associations, institutions or organisations who have worked selflessly for peace, non-violence and amelioration of human sufferings, particularly of the less-privileged section of society, contributing towards social justice and harmony. The Award is open to all persons regardless of nationality, race, language, caste, creed or gender. Normally, contributions made during the ten years immediately preceding the nomination are considered. Older contributions may also be considered if their significance has not become apparent recently.

54. GPS-Aided Geo Augmented Navigation (GAGAN) uses a system of ground stations to provide necessary augmentation. Which of the following statements is/are correct in respectof GAGAN?

I. It is designed to provide additional accuracy and integrity.

II. It will allow more uniform and high quality air traffic management.

III. It will provide benefits only in aviation but not in other modes of transportation.

Select the correct answer using the code given below.

(a) I, II and III

(b) II and III only

(d) I and II only

54. Ans-d

Explanation

GAGAN is the acronym for GPS Aided GEO Augmented Navigation. The GAGAN uses a system of ground stations to provide necessary augmentations to the GPS standard positioning service(SPS) navigation signal. A network of precisely surveyed ground reference stations (INdianReference Stations INRES) is strategically positioned across the country to collect GPS satellite data. Using this information, the master control centre (INdian Master Control Centre INMCC) generates messages to correct any signal errors. These correction messages are then uplinked through (INdian Land Uplink Station INLUS) and broadcast through communication satellites (Geostationary) to receivers onboard aircraft using the same frequency as GPS.

The GAGAN is designed to provide the additional accuracy, availability, and integrity necessary to enable users to rely on GPS for all phases of flight, from en route through approach for all qualified airports within the GAGAN service volume.

Hence statement 1 is correct

GAGAN will also provide the capability for increased accuracy in position reporting, allowing for more uniform and high-quality Air Traffic Management (ATM).

Hence statement 2 is correct

In addition, GAGAN will provide benefits beyond aviation to all modes of transportation, including maritime, highways, and railroads

Hence statement 3 is incorrect

55. Consider the following statements regarding Al Action Summit held in Grand Palais, Paris in February 2025:

I. Co-chaired with India, the event builds on the advances made at the Bletchley Park Summit held in 2023 and the Seoul Summit held in 2024.

II. Along with other countries US and UK also signed the declaration on inclusive and sustainable Al.

Which of the statements given above is/are correct?

(a) I only

(b) II only

(d) Neither I nor II

55. Ans-a

Explanation

India along with France co-chaired the Artificial Intelligence Action Summit, gathering Heads of State and Government, leaders of international organizations, small and large enterprises, representatives of academia, non-governmental organizations, artists and members of civil society, in order to build on the important milestones reached during the Bletchley Park (November 2023) and Seoul (May 2024) summits.

Hence statement 1 is correct

India, China, the European Commission and over 50 countries have signed the statement on “Inclusive and Sustainable Artificial Intelligence (AI) for People and the Planet” While the United States and the United Kingdom have not signed the statement, the signatories agreed to develop sustainable and inclusive AI and agreed on the need for narrowing the inequalities and assisting developing countries in artificial intelligence capacity-building

Hence statement 2 is incorrect

56. Consider the following pairs :

I. International Year of the Woman Farmer : 2026

II. International Year of Sustainable and Resilient Tourism : 2027

III. International Year of Peace and Trust : 2025

IV. International Year of Asteroid Awareness and Planetary Defence : 2029

How many of the pairs given above are correctly matched?

(a) Only one

(b) Only two

(d) All the four

56. Ans-d

Explanation

International years currently observed by the United Nations

2029- International Year of Asteroid Awareness and Planetary Defence

2027-International Year of Sustainable and Resilient Tourism

2026-International Year of the Woman Farmer

2026-International Year of Volunteers for Sustainable Development

2026-International Year of Rangelands and Pastoralists

2025-International Year of Quantum Science and Technology

2025-International Year of Cooperatives

2025-International Year of Glaciers’ Preservation

2025-International Year of Peace and Trust

57. Consider the following statements with regard to BRICS;

I. 16th BRICS Summit was held under the Chairship of Russia in Kazan.

II. Indonesia has become a full member of BRICS.

III. The theme of the 16th BRICS Summit was Strengthening Multiculturalism for Just Global Development and Security.

Which of the statements given above is/are correct?

(a) I and II

(b) II and III

(d) I only

57. Ans-a

Explanation

The 16th BRICS Summit was held at Kazan, Russian Federation

Hence statement 1 is correct

As the Chair of BRICS, Russia is focusing on the theme, ‘Strengthening Multilateralism for Just Global Development and Security’.

Hence statement 3 is incorrect

Initially comprised of Brazil, the Russian Federation, India, China, and South Africa, the recently expanded alliance now also includes Argentina, Egypt, Ethiopia, Iran, Saudi Arabia, and the United Arab Emirates (UAE).

On January 7, Indonesia became the first Southeast Asian nation to formally join BRICS, an intergovernmental bloc consisting of countries from the Global South.

Hence statement 2 is correct

The BRICS countries convene for a BRICS Leaders’ Summit annually. Discussions focus on spheres of political and socioeconomic coordination, in which member countries have identified business opportunities, economic complementarities, and areas of cooperation.

58. Consider the following statements about Lokpal:

I. The power of Lokpal applies to public servants of India, but not to the Indian public servants posted outside India.
II. The Chairperson or a Member shall not be a Member of the Parliament or a Member of the Legislature of any State or Union Territory, and only the Chief Justice of India, whether incumbent or retired, has to be its Chairperson.
III. The Chairperson or a Member shall not be a person of less than forty-five years of age on the date of assuming office as the Chairperson or Member, as the case may be.
IV. Lokpal cannot inquire into the allegations of corruption against a sitting Prime Minister of India.

Which of the statements given above is/are correct?

(a) III only
(b) II and III
(c) I and IV
(d) None of the above

58. Ans-a

Explanation

Powers of Lokpal

Lokpal, as a body, is bestowed with wide powers to direct inquiry investigation and to accord sanction to prosecute the public officials/functionaries referred to in Section 14 of the Act

– In terms of Section 14 of the Act, a complaint can be filed against

a) Any person who is or has been a Prime Minister.

b) Any person who is or has been a Minister of Union.

c) Any person who is or has been a Member of either House of Parliament.

d) Any person who is or has been a Group ‘A’ or Group ‘B’ officer or equivalent serving in connection with the affairs of the Government of India.

e) Any person who is or has been a Group ‘C’ or Group ‘D’ official or equivalent serving in connection with the affairs of the Government of India.

f) Any person who is or has been a Chairperson, Member, Officer or employee in any Board, Corporation, Authority, Company, Society, Trust or Autonomous body established by an Act of Parliament wholly or partly established or controlled by the Government of India.

g) Any person who is or has been a Director, Manager, Secretary or other Officers of any Society, Association of persons or Trust registered wholly or partly financed by Government of India and the annual income of which exceeds such amount as the Central Government may by notification, specified (presently Rs 10 lakh).

h) Any person who is or has been a Director, Manager, Secretary or Other officers of any Society, Association of persons or any Trust registered under the law and is in receipt of any donations from any foreign source underForeign Contribution (Regulation) Act, 2010 over Rupees One crore in a year.

Hence statement 1 &4 are incorrect

What complaint can be filed against the Prime Minister?

Except on matters relating to international relations, external and internal security, public order, atomic energy and space, allegations in respect of any other activity involving commission of offence of corruption relatable to the provisions of the Prevention of Corruption Act, 1988.

Who can be appointed as Chairperson?

A person who is or has been a Chief Justice of India or is or has been a Judge of the Supreme Court.

Hence statement 2 is incorrect

A person who is or has been a Judge of the Supreme Court or is or has been a Chief Justice of a High Court can be appointed a Judicial Member of the Lokpal

A person of impeccable integrity and outstanding ability, having special knowledge and expertise of not less than twenty-five years in subjects prescribed in Clause (b) of sub-section 3 of Section 3 of the Act, can be appointed as a Non-Judicial Member of Lokpal

Who cannot be a chairperson ?

The Chairperson or a Member shall not be— (i) a member of Parliament or a member of the Legislature of any State or Union territory; (ii) a person convicted of any offence involving moral turptitude; (iii) a person of less than forty-five years of age, on the date of assuming office as the Chairperson or Member, as the case may be; (iv) a member of any Panchayat or Municipality; (v) a person who has been removed or dismissed from the service of the Union or a State, and shall not hold any office of trust or profit

The Chairperson and the Members are appointed by the Hon’ble President of India by warrant under his hand and seal and hold office for a term of five years from the date on which they enter upon the office or until they attain the age of 70 years, whichever is earlier

Hence statement 3 is correct

59. Consider the following statements in respect of the first Kho Kho World Cup:

I. The event was held in Delhi, India.

II. Indian men beat Nepal with a score of 78-40 in the final to become the World Champion in men category.

III. Indian women beat Nepal with a score of 54-36 in the final to become the World

Champion in women category.

Which of the statements given above is/are correct?

(a) I only

(b) II and III only

(d) I, II and III

59. Ans-a

Explanation

The Kho Kho World Cup 2025 concluded in New Delhi with India claiming the men’s and women’s titles after beating Nepal in both finals at the Indira Gandhi Indoor Stadium on January 19.

In the men’s division, India outplayed Nepal by a 54-36 scoreline in the summit clash while the women’s title decider finished 78-40 in the hosts’ favour.

60. Consider the following statements :

I. In the finals of the 45th Chess Olympiad held in 2024, Gukesh Dommaraju became the world’s youngest winner after defeating the Russian player Jan Nepomniachtchi

II. Abhimanyu Mishra, an American chess player, holds the record of becoming world’s youngest ever Grandmaster.

Which of the statements given above is/are correct?

(a) I only

(b) II only

(d) Neither I nor II

60. Ans-b

Explanation

The 45th Chess Olympiad concluded yesterday in Hungary, Budapest, with India clinching gold in both Open and Women’s sections, and winning the prestigious Gaprindashvili Cup

Gukesh D scored impressive 9/10 points and emerged as the best individual player on Board 1

Hence statement 1 is incorrect

Abhimanyu Mishra became the youngest international master in 2019 at the age of 10 and began earning his GM norms in 2021.

Hence statement 2 is correct

61. Consider the following statements:

Statement I: Some rare earth elements are used in the manufacture of flat television, screens and computer monitors,

Statement II:Some rare earth elements have phosphorescent properties.

Which one of the following is correct in respect of the above statements?

(a) Both Statement I and Statement II are correct and Statement II explains Statement I

(b) Both Statement I and Statement II are correct but Statement II doesnot explain Statement I

(d) Statement I is not correct but Statement II is correct

61. Ans-a

Explanation

Rare earth elements are used in several high technology industrial products.

In the ceramic and glass industry rare earth element containing compounds are used for high temperature materials, for coatings, polishing, coloring, decoloring and as glass additives. The main other uses of rare earth elements are in permanent magnets, phosphors in color television tubes, x-ray tubes, fluorescent lamps, electronic and computer devices and lighter flints.

Hence statement 1 is correct

Rare Earth Metals (REM) like europium and terbium are known for their phosphorescent properties

Hence statement 2 is correct and explains statement 1

62. Consider the following statements:

I. Indian Railways have prepared a National Rail Plan (NRP) to create a future ready railway system by 2028.

II. ‘Kavach’ an Automatic Train Protection system developed in collaboration with Germany.

III. ‘Kavach’ system consists of RFID tags fitted on track in station section.

Which of the statements given above are not correct?

(a) I and II only

(b) II and III only

(d) 1, II and III

62. Ans- a

Explanation

Indian Railways have prepared a National Rail Plan (NRP) for India – 2030. The Plan is to create a ‘future ready’ Railway system by 2030.

Statement 1 is incorrect

Kavach is an indigenously developed Automatic Train Protection (ATP) system.

Statement 2 is incorrect

India’s capability to deploy the Kavach automatic train collision avoidance system is set to receive a boost with the approval of global companies, Germany’s Siemens and Japan’s Kyosan, to install it on the national transporter

Kavach aids the Loco Pilot in running of train within specified speed limits by automatic application of brakes in case Loco Pilot fails to do so and also helps the trains to run safely during inclement weather

Kavach was adopted as National ATP system in July 2020.

Implementation of Kavach System involves following Key Activities:

Installation of Station Kavach at each and every station, block section.
Installation of RFID Tags throughout the track length.
Installation of telecom Towers throughout the section.
Laying of Optical Fibre Cable along the track.
Provision of Loco Kavach on each and every Locomotive running on Indian Railways.

Statement 3 is correct

63. Consider the following Space missions :

I. Axiom-4

II. SpaDeX

III. Gaganyaan

How many of the space missions given above encourage and support micro-gravity research?

(a) Only one

(b) Only two

(d) None

63. Ans-c

Explanation

The Axiom-4 mission

The Axiom-4 mission a collaborative effort of Axiom Space, NASA, European Space Agency (ESA) and Indian Space Research Organisation (ISRO)

During the 14-day mission docked to the orbiting laboratory, the astronauts will conduct global outreach activities, microgravity research and technology demonstrations.

PSLV-C60 SpaDeX mission

SpaDeX mission is a cost-effective technology demonstrator mission for the demonstration of in-space docking using two small spacecraft launched by PSLV.

PS4-Orbital Experiment Module, designated as POEM, refers to the usage of the spent fourth stage of the Polar Synchronous Launch Vehicle (PSLV). It provides an opportunity for the scientific community to carry out certain in-orbit microgravity experiments for an extended duration of up to three months

PSLV-C60 SpaDeX mission is the fourth POEM Mission (in short POEM-4) in the series.

Gaganyaan

Indian Human Space Program, Gaganyaan aims to encourage and support Indian scientific community in microgravity research activities through flight opportunities in ISRO’s missions as well as joint international efforts.

64. With reference to India’s defence, consider the following pairs:

Aircraft type : Description

I. Dornier-228 : Maritime patrol aircraft

II. IL-76 : Supersonic combat aircraft

III. C-17 Globe-master III : Military transport aircraft

How many of the pairs given above are correctly matched?

(a) Only one

(b) Only two

(d) None

64. Ans-b

Explanation

Dornier-228

The Dornier 228 is a high-wing, twin-engine turboprop aircraft manufactured by Hindustan Aeronautics Limited (HAL) and RUAG Aerospace. The DO-228 is capable of carrying payloads up to around 5,200 lbs and has a maximum flight altitude of around 28,000 ft. It has been utilized for remote sensing and atmospheric research.

The Do-228 can be deployed in passenger and cargo transportation, as an air taxi, for corporate purposes, for aircrew training, maritime surveillance, search and rescue, border patrolling and medical evacuation missions.

Hence 1st pair is correctly matched

IL-76

The Ilyushin Il-76 is a robust cargo aircraft celebrated for its significant payload capacity and ability to transport bulk, heavy, and outsized loads. Its solid construction and advanced engineering make it ideal for a wide range of logistical and transport operations.

The Ilyushin Il-76, developed by the Ilyushin Design Bureau, first flew in 1971. It was originally designed to meet the airlift needs of the Soviet Union, capable of transporting heavy machinery, military equipment, and large cargo.

Hence 2nd pair is incorrectly matched

C-17 Globe-master III

A high-wing, four-engine, T-tailed military transport aircraft, the multi-service C-17 can carry large equipment, supplies and troops directly to small airfields in harsh terrain anywhere in the world. The massive, sturdy, long-haul aircraft tackles distance, destination and heavy, oversized payloads in unpredictable conditions. It has delivered cargo in every worldwide operation since the 1990s.

Boeing has partnered with the U.S. Air Force on C-17 sustainment since the delivery of the first aircraft in 1993.

Hence 3rd pair is correctly matched

65. Artificial way of causing rainfall to reduce air pollution makes use of

(a) silver iodide and potassium iodide

(b) silver nitrate and potassium iodide

(d) silver nitrate and potassium chloride

65. Ans-a

Explanation

Cloud seeding is a weather modification technique that improves a cloud’s ability to produce rain, in order to tackle pollution.

The most common chemicals used for cloud seeding include silver iodide, potassium iodide and dry ice (solid carbon dioxide)

66. Consider the following statements with regard to pardoning power of the President of India:

I. The exercise of this power by the President can be subjected to limited judicial review.

II. The President can exercise this power without the advice of the Central Government.

Which of the statements given above is/are correct?

(a) I only

(b) II only

(d) Neither I nor II

66. Ans-a

Explanation

Pardoning Power

In India the president exercises this power on the advice of the ministers.

Hence statement 2 is incorrect

In England the queen exercises this power on the advice of the home secretary.

In the United States, the president is given the power to grant a pardon or remit a sentence in a case other than cases of impeachment before as well as after conviction.

However,the President of India can grant Amnesty only after conviction and that to with the approval of the Parliament.

Supreme Court in Maru Ram v. Union of India has emphasised that no constitutional power is to be exercised arbitrarily . Therefore the court said though considerations for excercise of power under article 72 (similarly article 161) may be myriad and their occasions protean and would best be left to the appropriate government , yet in case the power to Pardon, commute and remit is exercised on irrational, discriminatory and malafide considerations, the courts would examine the case and intervene,if necessary.

Hence statement 1 is correct

67.Consider the following statements:

I. On the dissolution of the House of the People, the Speaker shall not vacate his/her office until immediately before the first meeting of the House after the dissolution.
II. According to the provisions of the Constitution of India, a Member of the House of the People on being elected as Speaker shall resign from his/her political party immediately.
III. The Speaker of the House of the People may be removed from his/her office by a resolution of the House of the People passed by a majority of all the then Members of the House, provided that no resolution shall be moved unless at least fourteen days’ notice has been given of the intention to move the resolution.

(a) I and II only
(b) II and III only
(c) I and III only
(d) I, II and III

67. Ans-C

Explanation

Article 94(c) Speaker may be removed from his office by a resolution of the House of the People passed by a majority of all the then members of the House: Provided that no resolution shall be moved un less at least fourteen days’ notice has been given of the intention to move the

Resolution:

Hence statement 1 is correct

Provided further that, whenever the House of the People is dissolved, the Speaker shall not vacate his office until immediately before the first meeting of the House of the People after the dissolution.

Hence statement 3 is correct

Impartiality is an important attribute of the office of the speaker

The speaker is politically neutral. Upon his election as a speaker, he dissociates himself from the activities of his party.

While he may continue to belong to a party, he ceases to be involved in any party politics

He does not hold any Party office, does not participate in any party meetings or functions and keeps away from political controversies and party campaigns.

Hence statement 2 is incorrect

68. Consider the following statements:

I. If any question arises as to whether a Member of the House of the People has become subject to disqualification under the 10th Schedule, the President’s decision in accordance with the opinion of the Council of Union Ministers shall be final.
II. There is no mention of the word ‘political party’ in the Constitution of India.

(a) I only
(b) II only
(c) Both I and II
(d) Neither I nor II

68. Ans-d

Explanation

If any question arises as to whether a member of a House has become subject to disqualification under xth Schedule, the question shall be referred to the Chairman or, as the case may be, the Speaker of such House and his decision shall be final.

Hence statement 1 is incorrect

The word political party is used 39 times in the Constitution of India

Hence statement 2 is incorrect

69. Consider the following statements:

Statement I: In India, State Governments have no power for making rules for grant of concessions in respect of extraction of minor minerals even though such minerals are located in their territories.
Statement II: In India, the Central Government has the power to notify minor minerals under the relevant law.

(a) Both Statement I and Statement II are correct and Statement II explains Statement I
(b) Both Statement I and Statement II are correct but Statement II does not explain Statement I
(c) Statement I is correct but Statement II is not correct
(d) Statement I is not correct but Statement II is correct

69. Ans-d

Explanation

The term minor mineral has been defined in mines and minerals (regulation and development) act

Apart from minor minerals already specified under act , Central Government can declare other minerals as minor minerals .

Hence statement 2 is correct

State government may by public notification make rules for regulating the grant of quarry leases, mining leases and other mineral concessions in respect of minor minerals.

Hence statement 1 is incorrect

70. Which organization has enacted the Nature Restoration Law (NRL) to tackle climate change and biodiversity loss?

(a) The European Union
(b) The World Bank
(c) The Organization for Economic Cooperation and Development
(d) The Food and Agriculture Organization

70. Ans-a

Explanation

The Nature Restoration Regulation is the first continent-wide, comprehensive law of its kind. It is a key element of the EU Biodiversity Strategy, which sets binding targets to restore degraded ecosystems, in particular those with the most potential to capture and store carbon and to prevent and reduce the impact of natural disasters.

71.Suppose the revenue expenditure is Rs.80,000 crores and the revenue receipts of the Government are Rs.60,000 crores. The Government budget also shows borrowings of Rs.10,000 crores and interest payments of Rs.6,000 crores. Which of the following statements are correct?

I. Revenue deficit is Rs.20,000 crores.

II. Fiscal deficit is Rs.10,000 crores.

III. Primary deficit is Rs.4,000 crores.

Select the correct answer using the code given below.

(a) I and II only

(b) II and III only

(d) I, II and III

71. Ans-d

Explanation

Revenue Deficit: The revenue deficit refers to the excess of government’s revenue expenditure over revenue receipts

Revenue deficit = Revenue expenditure – Revenue receipts (60000-80000cr )= 20000 crore

Hence statement 1 is correct

Fiscal Deficit: Fiscal deficit is the difference between the government’s total expenditure and its total receipts excluding borrowing

The fiscal deficit will have to be financed through borrowing. Thus, it indicates the total borrowing requirements of the government from all sources = Rs.10,000 crore

Hence statement 2 is correct

Primary Deficit: We must note that the borrowing requirement of the government includes interest obligations on accumulated debt. The goal of measuring primary deficit is to focus on present fiscal imbalances. To obtain an estimate of borrowing on account of current expenditures exceeding revenues, we need to calculate what has been called the primary deficit. It is simply the fiscal deficit minus the interest payments = Rs.10,000 crore – Rs.6000 crore = Rs.4,000 crore

Hence statement 3 is correct

72. India is one of the founding members of the International North-South Transport Corridor (INSTC), a multimodal a transportation corridor, which will connect

(a) India to Central Asia to Europe via Iran

(b) India to Central Asia via China

(d) India to Europe through Azerbaijan

72. Ans-a

Explanation

International North-South Transport Corridor (INSTC), is a multi modal transportation established in 12 SEP 2000 in St. Petersburg, by Iran, Russia and India for the purpose of promoting transportation cooperation among the Member States.

This corridor connects India Ocean and Persian Gulf to the Caspian Sea via Islamic republic of IRAN, then is connected to St. Petersburg and North European via Russian Federation.

73. Consider the following statements :

Statement I: Of the two major ethanol producers in the world, i.e., Brazil and the United States of America, the former produces more ethanol than the latter.

Statement II: Unlike in the United States of America where corn is the principal feedstock for ethanol production, sugarcane is the principal feedstock for ethanol production in Brazil.

Which one of the following is correct in respect of the above statements?

(a) Both Statement I and Statement II are correct and Statement II explains Statement I

(b) Both Statement I and Statement II are correct but Statement II doesnot explain Statement I

(d) Statement I is not correct but Statement II is correct

73. Ans-d

Explanation

United States is the world’s largest producer of ethanol, having produced over 15 billion gallons in 2021 and 2022. Together, the United States and Brazil produce 80% of the world’s ethanol. The vast majority of U.S. ethanol is produced from corn, while Brazil primarily uses sugarcane.

Hence statement 1 is incorrect & statement 2 is correct

74. The World Bank warned that India could become one of the first places where wet-bulb temperatures routinely exceed 35°C. Which of the following statements best reflect(s) the implication of the above-said report?

I. Peninsular India will most likely suffer from flooding, tropical cyclones and droughts.

II. The survival of animals including humans will be affected as shedding of their body heat through perspiration becomes difficult.

Select the correct answer using the code given below.

(a) I only

(b) II only

(d) Neither I nor II

74.Ans-c

Explanation

A report by the World Bank cautioned that India could become one of the first places in the world where wet-bulb temperatures could soar past the survivability threshold of 35°C

What is wet bulb temperature ?

Wet bulb temperature is a meteorological term used to describe the lowest temperature that can be reached by evaporating water into the air at constant pressure. It is measured by covering a thermometer bulb with a wet cloth and letting the water evaporate. As the water evaporates, it cools the thermometer, showing the wet bulb temperature.

This temperature helps measure humidity and understand how much water can evaporate into the air, affecting things like comfort, farming and weather patterns.

A wet-bulb temperature of 35 degrees Celsius is suggested as the maximum safe limit, according to a 2010 study. 35 degree Celsius wet-bulb is an upper limit for mammals, including humans .

High heat combined with humidity poses a greater risk to human health than high heat alone because sweat does not evaporate effectively, leading to increased body temperature, heat exhaustion and potentially fatal heatstroke.

Hence statement 2 is correct

Extended periods of heat waves lead to signicant drying of soil over large regions. Aside from the obvious agricultural implications, this can impact the monsoon onset and can negatively affect agriculture, water security, and even lead to localized flooding, where heavy rain hits dry soil that is unable to absorb it.

Owing to its Peninsular shape surrounded by the Bay of Bengal in the east and the Arabian Sea in the west, the tropical cyclones in India also originate in these two important locations. Though most of the cyclones originate between 10°-15° north latitudes during the monsoon season, yet in case of the Bay of Bengal, cyclones mostly develop during the months of October and November. Here, they originate between 16°-2°° N latitudes and to the west of 92° E. By July the place of origin of these storms shifts to around 18° N latitude and west of 90°E near the Sunderban Delta.

It was mentioned that the energy to the tropical cyclone comes from the latent heat released by the warm moist air. Hence, with the increase in distance from the sea, the force of the cyclone decreases. In India, the force of the cyclone decreases with increase in distance from the Bay of Bengal and the Arabian Sea. So, the coastal areas are often struck by severe cyclonic storms with an average velocity of 180 km/h. Often, this results in abnormal rise in the sea level known as Storm Surge.

Hence statement 2 is correct

75.A country’s fiscal deficit stands at Rs.50,000 crores. It is receiving Rs.10,000 crores through non-debt creating capital receipts. The country’s interest liabilities are Rs.1,500 crores. What is the gross primary deficit?

(a) Rs.48,500 crores

(b) Rs.51,500 crores

(d) None of the above

75. Ans-a

Explanation

Gross primary deficit = Gross fiscal deficit – Net interest liabilities (50000-1500=48500 crore)

Net interest liabilities consist of interest payments minus interest receipts by the government on net domestic lending

76. Which of the following statements with regard to recommendations of the 15th Finance Commission of India are correct?

I. It has recommended grants of ₹ 4,800 crores from the year 2022-23 to the year 2025-26 for incentivizing States to enhance educational outcomes.

II. 45% of the net proceeds of Union taxes are to be shared with States.

III. ₹ 45,000 crores are to be kept as performance-based incentive for all States for carrying out agricultural reforms.

IV. It reintroduced tax effort criteria to reward fiscal performance.

Select the correct answer using the code given below.

(a) I, II and III

(b) I, II and IV

(d) II, III and IV

76. Ans-c

Explanation

XVFC has recommended grants of Rs. 4,800 crore (Rs. 1,200 crore each year) from 2022-23 to 2025-26 for incentivising the States to enhance educational outcomes.

Hence statement 1 is correct

45000 crore for implementation of agricultural reforms

Hence statement 3 is correct

XVFC has recommended maintaining the vertical devolution at 41 per cent – the same as in our report for 2020-21. It is at the same level of 42 per cent of the divisible pool as recommended by FC-XIV. However, it has made the required adjustment of about 1 per cent due to the changed status of the erstwhile State of Jammu and Kashmir into the new Union Territories of Ladakh and Jammu and Kashmir.

Hence statement 2 is incorrect

Horizontal devolution:

Based on principles of need, equity and performance, overall devolution formula is as follows.

Criteria	Weight (%)
Population	15.0
Area	15.0
Forest & ecology	10.0
Income distance	45.0
Tax & fiscal efforts	2.5
Demographic performance	12.5
Total	100

Hence statement 4 is correct

77. Consider the following statements in respect of the International Bank for Reconstruction and Development (IBRD) :

I. It provides loans and guarantees to middle income countries.

II. It works single-handedly to help developing countries to reduce poverty.

III. It was established to help Europe rebuild after the World War II.

Which of the statements given above are correct?

(a) I and II only

(b) II and III only

(d) I, II and III

77. Ans-c

Explanation

The International Bank for Reconstruction and Development (IBRD) is a global development cooperative owned by 189 member countries.

As the largest development bank in the world, it supports the World Bank Group’s mission by providing loans, guarantees, risk management products, and advisory services to middle-income and creditworthy low-income countries, as well as by coordinating responses to regional and global challenges.

Hence statement 1 is correct

Created in 1944 to help Europe rebuild after World War II, IBRD joins with IDA, fund for the poorest countries, to form the World Bank.

Hence statement 3 is correct

They work closely with all institutions of the World Bank Group and the public and private sectors in developing countries to reduce poverty and build shared prosperity.

Hence statement 2 is incorrect

78. Consider the following statements in respect of RTGS and NEFT :

I. In RTGS, the settlement time is instantaneous while in case of NEFT, is takes some time to settle payments.

II. In RTGS, the customer is charged for inward transactions while that is not the case for NEFT.

III. Operating hours for RTGS are restricted on certain days while this is not true for NEFT.

Which of the statements given above is/are correct?

(a) I only

(b) I and II

(d) III only

78.Ans-a

Explanation

The acronym ‘RTGS’ stands for Real Time Gross Settlement, which can be explained as a system where there is continuous and real-time settlement of fund-transfers, individually on a transaction-by-transaction basis (without netting). ‘Real Time’ means the processing of instructions at the time they are received; ‘Gross Settlement’ means that the settlement of funds transfer instructions occurs individually.

Funds settlement takes place in the books of the Reserve Bank of India (RBI), the payments are final and irrevocable.

RTGS is available 24x7x365 with effect from December 14, 2020.

The RTGS system is primarily meant for large value transactions. The minimum amount to be remitted through RTGS is ₹ 2,00,000/- with no upper or maximum ceiling.

service charges levied by banks for offering funds transfer through RTGS system, a broad framework of charges has been mandated as under:

a) Inward transactions – Free, no charge to be levied. Hence statement 2 is incorrect

b) Outward transactions – ₹ 2,00,000/- to 5,00,000/-: not exceeding ₹ 25/- (exclusive of tax, if any)

Above ₹ 5,00,000/-: not exceeding ₹ 50 (exclusive of tax, if any)

Banks may decide to charge a lower rate but cannot charge more than the rates prescribed by RBI.

National Electronic Funds Transfer (NEFT) is an electronic fund transfer system in which the transactions received up to a particular time are processed in batches. Contrary to this, in RTGS, the transactions are processed continuously on a transaction-by-transaction basis throughout the day.

The NEFT system is available round the clock throughout the year on all days, i.e., on 24x7x365 basis. NEFT presently operates in batches on half-hourly intervals throughout the day. So its not instant like RTGS , it takes some time .

Hence statement 1 is correct

Besides funds transfer, NEFT system can be used for a variety of transactions including payment of credit card dues to the card issuing banks, payment of loan EMI, inward foreign exchange remittances, etc.

Customer charges levied by bank for NEFT transactions

There are no charges to be levied for inward transactions at destination bank branches for giving credit to beneficiary accounts.

For outward transactions undertaken using the NEFT system, RBI stopped levying processing charges on member banks from July 01, 2019.

Also, in order to give further impetus to digital retail payments, banks have been advised to not levy any charges from their savings bank account holders for NEFT funds transfers initiated online with effect from January 01, 2020.

The maximum charges which originating bank can be levy from its customers for other outward transactions, if they so desire, are given below: –

– For transactions up to ₹10,000 : not exceeding ₹2.50 (+ Applicable GST)

– For transactions above ₹10,000 up to ₹1 lakh: not exceeding ₹5 (+ Applicable GST)

– For transactions above ₹1 lakh and up to ₹2 lakhs: not exceeding ₹15 (+ Applicable GST)

– For transactions above ₹2 lakhs: not exceeding ₹25 (+ Applicable GST)

Hence statement 3 is incorrect

79. Consider the following countries :

I. United Arab Emirates

III. France

III. Germany

IV. Singapore

V. Bangladesh

How many countries amongst the above are there other than India where international merchant payments are accepted under UPI?

(a) Only two

(b) Only three

(d) All the five

79.Ans-b

Explanation

NPCI has launched UPI Global Acceptance (International Merchant Payments), a feature that enables users to make QR code-based payments at select international merchant locations directly from their Indian bank accounts via UPI-powered applications.

List of countries where international merchant payments are accepted at select merchant outlets – Bhutan , France , Mauritius , Nepal , Singapore , Srilanka , UAE

80. Consider the following statements about ‘PM Surya Ghar Muft Bijli Yojana’ :

I. It targets installation of one crore solar rooftop panels in the residential sector.

II. The Ministry of New and Renewable Energy aims to impart training on installation, operation, maintenance and repairs of solar rooftop systems at grassroot levels.

III. It aims to create more than three lakhs skilled manpower through fresh skilling, and upskilling, under scheme component of capacity building.

Which of the statements given above are correct?

(a) I and II only

(b) I and III only

(d) I, II and III

80.Ans-d

Explanation

The PM Surya Ghar: Muft Bijli Yojana, the world’s largest domestic rooftop solar initiative, is transforming India’s energy landscape with a bold vision to supply solar power to one crore households by March 2027.

The Ministry of New and Renewable Energy (MNRE) intends to impart training on installation, operation, maintenance and repairing of solar roof top systems at grass root level.

Aims to create more than 3 lakh skilled manpower, through fresh skilling, and up-skilling, under scheme component of capacity building, out of which at least 1,00,000 will be Solar PV Technicians.

Hence statements 1, 2 & 3 are correct

81. With reference to the Indian polity, consider the following statements:

I. An Ordinance can amend any Central Act.

II. An Ordinance can abridge a Fundamental Right.

III. An Ordinance can come into effect from a back date.

Which of the statements given above are correct?

(a) I and II only
(b) II and III only
(c) I and III only
(d) I, II, and III

81. Ans-c

Explanation

If at any time, except when both Houses of Parliament are in session, the President is satisfied that circumstances exist which render it necessary for him to take immediate action, he may promulgate such Ordinances as the circumstances appear to him to require.

Ordinances are subjected to constitutional limitations originating in

Fundamental rights contained in Part III
Distribution of legislative powers between Union and states
Other Constitutional limitations

Hence statement 2 is incorrect

An ordinance like alegislation, can be retrospective, that is, it may come into force from a back date. It may modify or repeal any act of Parliament or another ordinance. However, an ordinance cannot amend the Constitution

Hence statements 1&3 are correct

82. Consider the following pairs:

I. Arunachal Pradesh: The capital is named after a fort, and the State has two National Parks,

II. Nagaland: The State came into existence on the basis of a Constitutional Amendment Act,

III. Tripura: Initially a Part ‘C’ State, it became a centrally administered territory with the reorganization of States in 1956 and later attained the status of a full-fledged State.

How many of the above pairs are correctly matched?

(a) Only one
(b) Only two
(c) All the three
(d) None

82. Ans-c

Explanation

Itanagar meaning Brick fort , 2 national parks in Nagaland : Mouling National Park and Namdapha National Park
The Constitution (Thirteenth Amendment) Act, 1962 created Nagaland
After merger with Indian Union Tripura became a Part ‘C’ State. On reorganization of the states, effected in November, 1956, Tripura became a Union Territory . On January 21, 1972 Tripura became full-fledged State by the Act of Parliament called the North Eastern Areas (Reorganization) Act, 1971.

Hence statements 1,2and 3 are correct

83. With reference to India, consider the following:

I. The Inter-State Council,

II. The National Security Council,

III. Zonal Councils.

How many of the above were established as per the provisions of the Constitution of India?

(a) Only one
(b) Only two
(c) All the three
(d) None

83.Ans-a

Explanation

The Inter-State Council (ISC) is a body established under Article 263 of the Indian Constitution to facilitate coordination and collaboration between the Union and the States.

Zonal Councils are statutory bodies were set up by Part-III of the States Reorganisation Act, 1956.

The National Security Council (NSC)of India is an executive government body tasked with advising the prime Minister of India on matters of national security and foreign policy.

84. Consider the following statements:

I. The Constitution of India explicitly mentions that in certain spheres the Governor of a State acts in his/her own discretion.

II. The President of India can, of his/her own, reserve a bill passed by a State Legislature for his/her consideration without it being forwarded by the Governor of the State concerned.

Which of the statements given above is/are correct?

(a) I only
(b) II only
(c) Both I and II
(d) Neither I nor II

84.Ans-a

Explanation

Article 163. Council of Ministers to aid and advise Governor.—(1) There shall be a Council of Ministers with the Chief Minister at the head to aid and advise the Governor in the exercise of his functions, except in so far as he is by or under this Constitution required to exercise his functions or any of them in his discretion.

(2) If any question arises whether any matter is or is not a matter as respects which the Governor is by or under this Constitution required to act in his discretion, the decision of the Governor in his discretion shall be final, and the validity of anything done by the Governor shall not be called in question on the ground that he ought or ought not to have acted in his discretion.

(3) The question whether any, and if so what, advice was tendered by Ministers to the Governor shall not be inquired into in any court

Hence statement 1 is correct

Article 200. Assent to Bills.—When a Bill has been passed by the Legislative Assembly of a State or, in the case of a State having a Legislative Council, has been passed by both Houses of the Legislature of the State, it shall be presented to the Governor and the Governor shall declare either that he assents to the Bill or that he withholds assent therefrom or that he reserves the Bill for the

consideration of the President: Governor shall not assent to, but shall reserve for the consideration of the President, any Bill which in the opinion of theGovernor would, if it became law, so derogate from the powers of the High Court as to endanger the position which that Court is by this Constitution designed to fill.

Hence statement 2 is incorrect

85. Consider the following pairs:

I. Separation of Judiciary from the Executive in the public services of the State: The Directive Principles of the State Policy,

II. Valuing and preserving of the rich heritage of our composite culture: The Fundamental Duties,

III. Prohibition of employment of children below the age of 14 years in factories: The Fundamental Rights.

How many of the above pairs are correctly matched?

(a) Only one
(b) Only two
(c) All the three
(d) None

85. Ans-c

Explanation

Article 50. Separation of judiciary from executive.—The State shall take steps to separate the judiciary from the executive in the public services of the State.(Directive Principles of State policy )

Article 51A (f) to value and preserve the rich heritage of our composite Culture (Fundamental duties)

Article 24. Prohibition of employment of children in factories, etc.—No child below the age of fourteen years shall be employed to work in any factory or mine or engaged in any other hazardous employment (Fundamental Rights)

Hence 1, 2 and 3 are correctly matched

86. Consider the following statements: With reference to the Constitution of India, if an area in a State is declared as Scheduled Area:

I. The State Government loses its executive power in such areas and a local body assumes total administration,

II. The Union Government can take over the total administration of such areas under certain circumstances on the recommendations of the Governor.

Which of the statements given above is/are correct?

(a) I only
(b) II only
(c) Both I and II
(d) Neither I nor II

86. Ans-d

Explanation

Executive power of a State in Scheduled Areas.—Subject to the provisions of this Schedule, the executive power of a State extends to the Scheduled Areas therein.

Hence statement 1 is incorrect

Report by the Governor to the President regarding the administration of Scheduled Areas.—The Governorof each State having Scheduled Areas therein shall annually, or whenever so required by the President, make a report to the President regarding the administration of the Scheduled Areas in that State and the executive power of the Union shall extend to the giving of directions to the State as to the administration of the said areas

Hence statement 2 is incorrect

87. With reference to India, consider the following pairs:

I. The National Automotive Board: Ministry of Commerce and Industry,

II. The Coir Board: Ministry of Heavy Industries,

III. The National Centre for Trade Information: Ministry of Micro, Small and Medium Enterprises.

How many of the above pairs are correctly matched?

(a) Only one
(b) Only two
(c) All the three
(d) None

87. Ans-d

Explanation

National Automotive Board under Ministry of heavy Industries has been constituted as per approval of the Cabinet in October 2012 and was registered under the Registration of Societies Act in August 2013. This organisation will provide a single platform for dealing with all matters relating to the automotive sector especially on matters pertaining to testing, certification, homologation, administering the automotive labs etc.

Coir Board under Ministry of MSME is a statutory body established by the Government of India under a legislation enacted by the Parliament namely Coir Industry Act 1953 (45 of 1953) for the promotion and development of Coir Industry as well as export market of coir and coir products in India as a whole.

National Centre for Trade Information Under Ministry of Commerce Jointly promoted by India Trade Promotion Organization (ITPO) and National Informatics Centre (NIC), NCTI is involved in assimilation and dissemination of useful trade information.
1, 2 and 3 are incorrectly matched

88. Consider the following subjects under the Constitution of India:

I. List I-Union List, in the Seventh Schedule,

II. Extent of the executive power of a State,

III. Conditions of the Governor’s office.

For a constitutional amendment with respect to which of the above, ratification by the Legislatures of not less than one-half of the States is required before presenting the bill to the President of India for assent?

(a) I and II only
(b) II and III only
(c) I and III only
(d) I, II, and III

88. Ans-a

Explanation

Amendment of the Constitution by Special Majority and Ratification by States

If an amendment of the Constitution seeks to make any change in articles relating to—

The election of the President; or
The extent of the executive power of the Union and the States; or
The Supreme Court and the High Courts; or
Distribution of legislative powers between the Union and the States; or
Representation of States in Parliament; or
The very procedure for amendment as specified in the Constitution;

The amendment, after it is passed by the special majority, has also to be ratified by Legislatures of not less than one-half of the States by resolutions to that effect passed by those Legislatures before the Bill making provision for such an amendment is presented to the President for assent.

The Constitution does not contemplate any time-limit within which the States must signify their ratification or disapproval of the amendments referred to them

Hence 1 and 2 are correct

89. With reference to the Indian polity, consider the following statements:

I. The Governor of a State is not answerable to any court for the exercise and performance of the powers and duties of his/her office.

II. No criminal proceedings shall be instituted or continued against the Governor during his/her term of office.

III. Members of a State Legislature are not liable to any proceedings in any court in respect of anything said within the House.

Which of the statements given above are correct?

(a) I and II only
(b) II and III only
(c) I and III only
(d) I, II, and III

89.Ans-d

Explanation

Article 361. Protection of President and Governors and Rajpramukhs.—

(1)The President, or the Governor or Rajpramukh of a State, shall not beanswerable to any court for the exercise and performance of the powers and duties of his office or for any act done or purporting to be done by him in the exercise and performance of those powers and duties:

Hence Statement 1 is correct

(2) No criminal proceedings whatsoever shall be instituted or continued against the President, or the Governor of a State, in any court during his term of office.

Hence Statement 2 is correct

(3) No process for the arrest or imprisonment of the President, or theGovernor of a State, shall issue from any court during his term of office.

(4) No civil proceedings in which relief is claimed against the President, or the Governor of a State, shall be instituted during his term of office in any court in respect of any act done or purporting to be done by him in his personal capacity, whether before or after he entered upon his office as

President, or as Governor of such State, until the expiration of two months Next after notice in writing has been delivered to the President or the Governor , as the case may be, or left at his office, stating the nature of the proceedings, the cause of action therefor, the name, description and place of residence of the party by whom such proceedings are to be instituted and the relief, which he claims.

Article 194(2) No member of the Legislature of a State shall be liable to any proceedings in any court in respect of anything said or any vote given by him in the Legislature or any committee thereof, and no person shall be so liable in respect of the publication by or under the authority of a House of such a Legislature of any report, paper, votes or proceedings.

Hence statement 3 is correct .

90. Consider the following activities :

I. Production of crude oil

II. Refining, storage and distribution of petroleum

III. Marketing and sale of petroleum products

IV. Productions of natural gas

How many of the above activities are regulated by the Petroleum and Natural Gas Regulatory Board in our country?

(a) Only one

(b) Only two

(d) All the four

90.Ans-b

Explanation

PNGRB was constituted under The Petroleum and Natural Gas Regulatory Board Act, 2006 notified via Gazette Notification dated 31st March, 2006.

The Act provide for the establishment of Petroleum and Natural Gas Regulatory Board to protect the interests of consumers and entities engaged in specified activities relating to petroleum, petroleum products and natural gas and to promote competitive markets and for matters connected therewith or incidental thereto.

Further as enshrined in the act, the board has also been mandated to regulate the refining, processing, storage, transportation, distribution, marketing and sale of petroleum, petroleum products and natural gas excluding production of crude oil and natural gas so as and to ensure uninterrupted and adequate supply of petroleum, petroleum products and natural gas in all parts of the country.

Hence 2 and 3 are correct

91. “Sedition has become my religion” was the famous statement given by Gandhiji at the time of

(a) The Champaran Satyagraha

(b) Publicly violating Salt Law at Dandi

(d) The launch of the Quit India Movement

91. Ans-b

Explanation

Civil disobedience movement started by Gandhi on 12th March 1930 with his famous Dandi March. Together with 78 chosen followers, Gandhiji walked nearly 375 km from Sabarmati Ashram to Dandi, a village on the Gujarat sea coast.

On 6th April, Gandhiji reached Dandi, picked a handful of salt and broke the salt law as a symbol of India’s people’s refusal to live under British-made laws and therefore British rule. Gandhiji declared, British rule in India has brought about moral, material, cultural and spiritual ruination of this great country.

I regard this rule as a curse. I am out to destroy this system of government….. sedition has become my religion. Ours is a non-violent battle. We are not to kill anybody, but it is our dharma to see that the curse of this government is blotted out.

92. The famous female figurine known as ‘Dancing Girl’, found at Mohenjo-daro, is made of

(a) carnelian

(b) clay

(d) gold

92. Ans-c

Explanation

Bronze female figurine found at Mohenjodaro become famous as the ‘dancing girl’.

John Marshall referred to her as the ‘dancing girl’ due to her resemblance to a semi-impudent ‘nautch girl.’ He noted her posture, with one hand on her hip and her feet keeping time to the music, which contributed to this characterization.

The figure was made by the lost-wax method.

93. Who provided legal defence to the people arrested in the aftermath of Chauri Chaura incident? (a) C. R. Das

(b) Madan Mohan Malaviya and Krishna Kant

(d) M. A. Jinnah

93. Ans-b

Explanation

Madan Mohan Malaviya appeared in the High Court in 1923 to support the appeal of the 170 persons sentenced to death by the Session judge of Gorakhpur in the Chauri Chaura case. In this case 225 persons had been tried for setting fire to the police station of Chauri Chaura (in Deoria district) and causing the death of one Sub-Inspector and 21 constables trapped in it.

Due to the efforts of Barrister Krishna Kant and Mahamana Madan Mohan Malaviya, around 150 freedom fighters were saved from hanging.

94. Subsequent to which one of the following events, Gandhiji, who consistently opposed untouchability and appealed for its eradication from all spheres, decided to include the upliftment of ‘Harijans’ in his political and social programme?

(a) The Poona Pact

(b) The Gandhi-Irwin Agreement (Delhi Pact)

(d) Promulgation of the Government of India Act, 1935

94. Ans-a

Explanation

Poona Pact

Against communal award, Gandhi began a fast unto death on untouchable separate electorate issue on September 20, 1932.
Gandhi’s concern for untouchables was rooted in his deep humanitarianism. We do not want, as he said, on our register and on our census, untouchables classified as a separate class…. Would untouchables remain untouchables in perpetuity?
The result was the Pune Pact of September 25th, by which the award was modified.
The pact reserved a total of 148 seats for untouchables in the provincial legislatures, but provided that election to these seats was to be through joint electorates.
After Poona Pact, Harijan upliftment became Gandhiji’s main concern. Harijan, God’s people was the name given by Gandhiji to untouchables.
He started All India Untouchability League in September 1932 and Weekly Harijan in January 1933. January 8, 1933 was observed as a temple entry day.
In Harijan work, Gandhi’s emphasis was on conversion and not compulsion.
Gandhiji vigorously toured the country, appealing to the upper caste to change their attitude. Despite the reluctance of the Congress leaders, Gandhi’s tour was unsuccessful.

95. Consider the following fruits :

I. Papaya

II. Pineapple

III. Guava

How many of the above were introduced in India by the Portuguese in the sixteenth and seventeenth centuries?

(a) Only one

(b) Only two

(d) None

95. Ans-c

Explanation

The European ‘discovery’ of America was followed by the dissemination of American food crops to different parts of the world. The Portuguese, being the earliest European nation to arrive in India, became the agents for introducing several American crops like maize, sweet potato and capsicums in the country. The Portuguese also introduced many ‘New World’ fruits like the pineapple, Papaya, Sapodilla, and the Guava which found acceptance and became part of Indian food culture.

96. Consider the following countries :

I. United Kingdom

II. Denmark

III. New Zealand

IV. Australia

V. Brazil

How many of the above countries have more than four time zones?

(a) All the five

(b) Only four

(d) Onl

96. Ans-c

Explanation

Countries with more than four time zones

France (13 Time Zones)

Russia (11 Time Zones)

The United States (11 Time Zones)

Australia (9 Time Zones)

The United Kingdom (9 Time Zones)

Canada (6 Time Zones)

Denmark (5 Time Zones)

New Zealand (5 Times Zones)

Brazil (4 Times Zones)

97. Consider the following statements :

I. Anadyr in Siberia and Nome in Alaska are a few kilometers from each other, but whenpeople are waking up and getting set for breakfast in these cities, it would be different days.

II. When it is Monday in Anadyr, it is Tuesday in Nome.

Which of the statements given above is/are correct?

(a) I only

(b) II only

(d) Neither I nor II

97. Ans-a

Explanation

Anadyr is a port town and the administrative center of Chukotka Autonomous Okrug, Russia, located at the mouth of the Anadyr River at the tip of a peninsula .

It was founded in 1889 as the easternmost outpost of the Russian Empire.

The Port Of Nome is in western Alaska. The city is located on the southern Seward Peninsula coast on Norton Sound of the Bering Sea.

The time difference between Nome, Alaska, and Anadyr is 20 hours. Anadyr is 20 hours ahead of Nome.

Hence Statement 1 is correct & Statement 2 is incorrect

98. Who among the following was the founder of the ‘Self-Respect Movement’?

(a) ‘Periyar’ E. V. Ramaswamy Naicker

(b) Dr. B. R. Ambedkar

(d) Dinkarrao Javalkar

98. Ans-a

Explanation

E. V. Ramaswamy , Periyar from a merchant family of Erode. He had joined Congress in 1919, then gradually became disillusioned with what he saw as its Brahminic leadership.

In the early 1920s, he took part in the Vaikom Temple Satyagraha, reportedly clashing with Gandhi while taking a militant position. Nonetheless, Periyar returned to Tamil Nadu as the hero of Vaikom.

He subsequently clashed with Congress leaders over the proposed resolution for reservations in the legislatures for non-Brahmins and untouchables.

In 1925, Periyar left Congress.

Self-Respect League

Periyar formed the Self-Respect League in 1926 and its first conference was held in 1929. This movement spread across Tamil Nadu. Its focus was Opposing Brahmin priesthood, calling for abolition of caste and supporting the liberation of women, he attacked all religions taking an atheist stance

There is no God,
There is no God,
There is no God at all.
He who invented God is a fool.
He who propagates God is a scoundrel.
He who worships God is a barbarian.

In 1927, during a tour of South India, Gandhiji defended Varanashrama Dharma and Periyar contested this hotly in personal meetings and in articles in his journal Kudi Arasu, he now claimed that three conditions were necessary for the country to gain its freedom.

Destruction of the Congress,
Of the so-called Hindu religion and
Of Brahmin domination.

99. Consider the following pairs :

Country Resource-rich in

I. Botswana : Diamond

II. Chile : Lithium

III. Indonesia : Nickel

In how many of the above rows is the given information correctly matched?

(a) Only one

(b) Only two

(d) None

99.Ans-c

Explanation

Botswana is now the largest diamond exporter in the world by value, and the second largest by volume

Chile has the world’s largest lithium reserves (36%) and is the second-largest global producer (32%)

Indonesia leads the global nickel mining and smelting industry, producing nearly half of the world’s refined nickel and two-thirds of its mined nickel, primarily on the islands of Sulawesi and Maluku.

All three are correctly matched

100. Consider the following pairs :

Region Country

I. Mallorca : Italy

II. Normandy : Spain

III. Sardinia : France

In how many of the above rows is the given information correctly matched?

(a) Only one

(b) Only two

(d) None

100.Ans-c

Explanation

Mallorca, or Majorca, is the largest of the Balearic Islands, which are part of Spain, and the seventh largest island in the Mediterranean Sea.

Hence 1st pair is incorrectly matched

Normandyis a geographical and cultural region in northwestern Europe

Normandy comprises mainland Normandy (a part of France) and insular Normandy (mostly the British Channel Islands)

Hence 2nd pair is incorrectly matched

Sardinia is the second-largest island in the Mediterranean Sea, after Sicily, and one of the twenty regions of Italy.

Hence 3rd pair is incorrectly matched

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