There were 16 Questions from Polity in 2025, of which

• 3 Questions on Parliament and Parliamentary Procedures
• 2 Questions on President and Governor
• 1 Question on Ministers and Departments
• 1 Question on  mix of Fundamental Rights , duties and DPSP 
• 1 Question on Constitutional Amendment
• 1 Question on Scheduled areas
• 1 Question on States formation
• 1 Question on Panchayats ,  
• 1 Question on Lokpal 
• 1 Question on Gandhi Peace Prize 
• 1 Question on Regulatory Bodies 
• 1 Question on 7th schedule
• 1 Question on Inter state council

Overall, the level of questions was  Moderate.

Solved UPSC Prelims Polity PYQs With Explanation 2025 

1. Consider the following statements:

I. Panchayats at the intermediate level exist in all States.
II. To be eligible to be a Member of a Panchayat at the intermediate level, a person should attain the age of thirty years.
III. The Chief Minister of a State constitutes a commission to review the internal position of Panchayats.

Which of the statements given above are not correct

(a) I and II only
(b) II and III only
(c) I and III only
(d) I, II and III

1. Ans-d

Explanation

Article 243 B. Constitution of Panchayats.—(1) There shall be constituted in every State, Panchayats at the village, intermediate and district levels.

(2) Notwithstanding anything in clause (1), Panchayats at the intermediate level may not be constituted in a State having a population not exceeding twenty lakhs.

Hence statement 1 is incorrect

243F. Disqualifications for membership.—(1) A person shall be disqualified for being chosen as, and for being, a member of a Panchayat—

(a) If he is so disqualified by or under any law for the time being inforce for the purposes of elections to the Legislature of the Stateconcerned: Provided that no person shall be disqualified on the ground that he is less than twenty-five years of age, if he has attained the age of twenty one years;

Hence statement 2 is incorrect

243-I. Constitution of Finance Commission to review financial position.—(1) The Governor of a State shall, as soon as may be within one year from the commencement of the Constitution (Seventy-third Amendment)Act, 1992, and thereafter at the expiration of every fifth year, constitute a Finance Commission to review the financial position of the Panchayats and to make recommendations to the Governor.

Hence statement 3 is incorrect

2. Who amongst the following are members of the Jury to select the recipient of Gandhi Peace Prize?

I. The President of India
II. The Prime Minister of India
III. The Chief Justice of India
IV. The Leader of Opposition in the Lok Sabha
Select the correct answer using the code given below .

(a) II and IV only
(b) I, II and III
(c) II, III and IV
(d) I and III only

2. Ans-c

Explanation

As per para 2 of Chapter VI of Code of Procedure of Gandhi Peace Prize, the Jury shall comprise of the following persons:-

This annual award is given to individuals, associations, institutions or organisations who have worked selflessly for peace, non-violence and amelioration of human sufferings, particularly of the less-privileged section of society, contributing towards social justice and harmony. The Award is open to all persons regardless of nationality, race, language, caste, creed or gender. Normally, contributions made during the ten years immediately preceding the nomination are considered.  Older contributions may also be considered if their significance has not become apparent recently.

3. Consider the following statements about Lokpal:

I. The power of Lokpal applies to public servants of India, but not to the Indian public servants posted outside India.
II. The Chairperson or a Member shall not be a Member of the Parliament or a Member of the Legislature of any State or Union Territory, and only the Chief Justice of India, whether incumbent or retired, has to be its Chairperson.
III. The Chairperson or a Member shall not be a person of less than forty-five years of age on the date of assuming office as the Chairperson or Member, as the case may be.
IV. Lokpal cannot inquire into the allegations of corruption against a sitting Prime Minister of India.

Which of the statements given above is/are correct?

(a) III only
(b) II and III
(c) I and IV
(d) None of the above

3. Ans-a

Explanation

Powers of Lokpal

Lokpal, as a body, is bestowed with wide powers to direct inquiry investigation and to accord sanction to prosecute the public officials/functionaries referred to in Section 14 of the Act

– In terms of Section 14 of the Act, a complaint can be filed against

a) Any person who is or has been a Prime Minister. 

b) Any person who is or has been a Minister of Union. 

c) Any person who is or has been a Member of either House of Parliament.

 d) Any person who is or has been a Group ‘A’ or Group ‘B’ officer or equivalent serving in connection with the affairs of the Government of India.

 e) Any person who is or has been a Group ‘C’ or Group ‘D’ official or equivalent serving in connection with the affairs of the Government of India.

f) Any person who is or has been a Chairperson, Member, Officer or employee in any Board, Corporation, Authority, Company, Society, Trust or Autonomous body established by an Act of Parliament wholly or partly established or controlled by the Government of India.

g) Any person who is or has been a Director, Manager, Secretary or other Officers of any Society, Association of persons or Trust registered wholly or partly financed by Government of India and the annual income of which exceeds such amount as the Central Government may by notification, specified (presently Rs 10 lakh). 

h) Any person who is or has been a Director, Manager, Secretary or Other officers of any Society, Association of persons or any Trust registered under the law and is in receipt of any donations from any foreign source underForeign Contribution (Regulation) Act, 2010 over Rupees One crore in a year.

Hence statement 1 &4  are  incorrect 

What complaint can be filed against the Prime Minister? 

Except on matters relating to international relations, external and internal security, public order, atomic energy and space, allegations in respect of any other activity involving commission of offence of corruption relatable to the provisions of the Prevention of Corruption Act, 1988.

Who can be appointed as Chairperson? 

A person who is or has been a Chief Justice of India or is or has been a Judge of the Supreme Court.

Hence statement 2 is incorrect 

A person who is or has been a Judge of the Supreme Court or is or has been a Chief Justice of a High Court can be appointed a Judicial Member of the Lokpal

A person of impeccable integrity and outstanding ability, having special knowledge and expertise of not less than twenty-five years in subjects prescribed in Clause (b) of sub-section 3 of Section 3 of the Act, can be appointed as a Non-Judicial Member of Lokpal

Who cannot be a chairperson ?

The Chairperson or a Member shall not be— (i) a member of Parliament or a member of the Legislature of any State or Union territory; (ii) a person convicted of any offence involving moral turptitude; (iii) a person of less than forty-five years of age, on the date of assuming office as the Chairperson or Member, as the case may be; (iv) a member of any Panchayat or Municipality; (v) a person who has been removed or dismissed from the service of the Union or a State, and shall not hold any office of trust or profit

The Chairperson and the Members are appointed by the Hon’ble President of India by warrant under his hand and seal and hold office for a term of five years from the date on which they enter upon the office or until they attain the age of 70 years, whichever is earlier

Hence statement 3 is correct 

4. Consider the following statements:

I. On the dissolution of the House of the People, the Speaker shall not vacate his/her office until immediately before the first meeting of the House after the dissolution.
II. According to the provisions of the Constitution of India, a Member of the House of the People on being elected as Speaker shall resign from his/her political party immediately.
III. The Speaker of the House of the People may be removed from his/her office by a resolution of the House of the People passed by a majority of all the then Members of the House, provided that no resolution shall be moved unless at least fourteen days’ notice has been given of the intention to move the resolution.

Which of the statements given above are correct?

(a) I and II only
(b) II and III only
(c)  I and III only
(d) I, II and III

4. Ans-C

Explanation

Article 94(c) Speaker  may be removed from his office by a resolution of the House of the People passed by a majority of all the then members of the House: Provided that no resolution shall be moved un less at least fourteen days’ notice has been given of the intention to move the

Resolution:

Hence statement 1 is correct 

Provided further that, whenever the House of the People is dissolved, the Speaker shall not vacate his office until immediately before the first meeting of the House of the People after the dissolution.

Hence statement 3 is correct 

Impartiality is an important attribute of the office of the speaker 

The speaker is politically neutral. Upon his election as a speaker, he dissociates himself from the activities of his party. 

While he may continue to belong to a party, he ceases to be involved in any party politics 

He does not hold any Party office, does not participate in any party meetings or functions and keeps away from political controversies and party campaigns.

Hence statement 2 is incorrect   

5.Consider the following statements:

I. If any question arises as to whether a Member of the House of the People has become subject to disqualification under the 10th Schedule, the President’s decision in accordance with the opinion of the Council of Union Ministers shall be final.
II. There is no mention of the word ‘political party’ in the Constitution of India.

Which of the statements given above is/are correct?

(a) I only
(b) II only
(c) Both I and II
(d) Neither I nor II

5. Ans-d

Explanation

If any question arises as to whether a member of a House has become subject to disqualification under xth Schedule, the question shall be referred to the Chairman or, as the case may be, the Speaker of such House and his decision shall be final.

Hence statement 1 is incorrect

The word political party is used 39 times in the Constitution of India

Hence statement 2 is incorrect 

6. Consider the following statements:

Statement I: In India, State Governments have no power for making rules for grant of concessions in respect of extraction of minor minerals even though such minerals are located in their territories.
Statement II: In India, the Central Government has the power to notify minor minerals under the relevant law.

Which one of the following is correct in respect of the above statements?

(a) Both Statement I and Statement II are correct and Statement II explains Statement I
(b) Both Statement I and Statement II are correct but Statement II does not explain Statement I
(c) Statement I is correct but Statement II is not correct
(d) Statement I is not correct but Statement II is correct

6. Ans-d

Explanation

The term minor mineral has been defined in mines and minerals (regulation and development) act Apart from minor minerals already specified under act , Central Government can declare other minerals as minor minerals . 

Hence statement 2 is correct 

State government may by public notification make rules for regulating the grant of quarry leases, mining leases and other mineral concessions in respect of minor minerals. 

Hence statement 1 is incorrect 

7. With reference to the Indian polity, consider the following statements: 

I. An Ordinance can amend any Central Act. 

II. An Ordinance can abridge a Fundamental Right. 

III. An Ordinance can come into effect from a back date. 

Which of the statements given above are correct?
(a) I and II only
(b) II and III only
(c) I and III only
(d) I, II, and III

7. Ans-c

Explanation

If at any time, except when both Houses of Parliament are in session, the President is satisfied that circumstances exist which render it necessary for him to take immediate action, he may promulgate such Ordinances as the circumstances appear to him to require.

 Ordinances are subjected to constitutional limitations originating in 

1. Fundamental rights contained in Part III
2. Distribution of legislative powers between Union and states 
3. Other Constitutional limitations

Hence statement 2 is incorrect  

An ordinance like alegislation, can be retrospective, that is, it may come into force from a back date. It may modify or repeal any act of Parliament or another ordinance. However, an ordinance cannot amend the Constitution

Hence statements 1 & 3 are correct  

8. Consider the following pairs: 

I. Arunachal Pradesh: The capital is named after a fort, and the State has two National Parks,

 II. Nagaland: The State came into existence on the basis of a Constitutional Amendment Act, 

III. Tripura: Initially a Part ‘C’ State, it became a centrally administered territory with the reorganization of States in 1956 and later attained the status of a full-fledged State. 

How many of the above pairs are correctly matched?

(a) Only one
(b) Only two
(c) All the three
(d) None

8. Ans-c

Explanation

• Itanagar meaning Brick fort , 2 national parks in  Nagaland : Mouling National Park and Namdapha National Park
• The Constitution (Thirteenth Amendment) Act, 1962 created Nagaland
• After merger  with Indian Union Tripura became a Part ‘C’ State. On reorganization of the states, effected in November, 1956, Tripura became a Union Territory . On January 21, 1972 Tripura became full-fledged State by the Act of Parliament called the North Eastern Areas (Reorganization) Act, 1971.

Hence statements 1, 2 and 3 are correct 

9. With reference to India, consider the following:

 I. The Inter-State Council, 

II. The National Security Council, 

III. Zonal Councils. 

How many of the above were established as per the provisions of the Constitution of India?

(a) Only one
(b) Only two
(c) All the three
(d) None

9. Ans-a

Explanation

The Inter-State Council (ISC) is a body established under Article 263 of the Indian Constitution to facilitate coordination and collaboration between the Union and the States.

Zonal Councils are statutory bodies were set up by Part-III of the States Reorganisation Act, 1956.

The National Security Council (NSC)of India is an executive government body tasked with advising the prime Minister of India on matters of national security and foreign policy.

10. Consider the following statements: 

I. The Constitution of India explicitly mentions that in certain spheres the Governor of a State acts in his/her own discretion.

II. The President of India can, of his/her own, reserve a bill passed by a State Legislature for his/her consideration without it being forwarded by the Governor of the State concerned. 

Which of the statements given above is/are correct?
(a) I only
(b) II only
(c) Both I and II
(d) Neither I nor II

10. Ans-a

Explanation 

Article 163. Council of Ministers to aid and advise Governor.—(1) There shall be a Council of Ministers with the Chief Minister at the head to aid and advise the Governor in the exercise of his functions, except in so far as he is by or under this Constitution required to exercise his functions or any of them in his discretion.

(2) If any question arises whether any matter is or is not a matter as respects which the Governor is by or under this Constitution required to act in his discretion, the decision of the Governor in his discretion shall be final, and the validity of anything done by the Governor shall not be called in question on the ground that he ought or ought not to have acted in his discretion.

(3) The question whether any, and if so what, advice was tendered by Ministers to the Governor shall not be inquired into in any court 

Hence statement 1 is correct 

Article 200. Assent to Bills.—When a Bill has been passed by the Legislative Assembly of a State or, in the case of a State having a Legislative Council, has been passed by both Houses of the Legislature of the State, it shall be presented to the Governor and the Governor shall declare either that he assents to the Bill or that he withholds assent therefrom or that he reserves the Bill for the

consideration of the President: Governor shall not assent to, but shall reserve for the consideration of the President, any Bill which in the opinion of theGovernor would, if it became law, so derogate from the powers of the High Court as to endanger the position which that Court is by this Constitution designed to fill.

Hence statement 2 is incorrect 

11. Consider the following pairs:

I. Separation of Judiciary from the Executive in the public services of the State: The Directive Principles of the State Policy, 

II. Valuing and preserving of the rich heritage of our composite culture: The Fundamental Duties, 

III. Prohibition of employment of children below the age of 14 years in factories: The Fundamental Rights.

How many of the above pairs are correctly matched?
(a) Only one
(b) Only two
(c) All the three
(d) None

11. Ans-c

Explanation 

Article  50. Separation of judiciary from executive.—The State shall take steps to separate the judiciary from the executive in the public services of the State.(Directive Principles of State policy )

Article 51A  (f) to value and preserve the rich heritage of our composite Culture (Fundamental duties)

Article 24. Prohibition of employment of children in factories, etc.—No child below the age of fourteen years shall be employed to work in any factory or mine or engaged in any other hazardous employment (Fundamental Rights) 

Hence 1, 2 and 3 are correctly matched

12. Consider the following statements: With reference to the Constitution of India, if an area in a State is declared as Scheduled Area:

I. The State Government loses its executive power in such areas and a local body assumes total administration, 

II. The Union Government can take over the total administration of such areas under certain circumstances on the recommendations of the Governor.

Which of the statements given above is/are correct?
(a) I only
(b) II only
(c) Both I and II
(d) Neither I nor II

12. Ans-d

Explanation 

Executive power of a State in Scheduled Areas.—Subject to the provisions of this Schedule, the executive power of a State extends to the Scheduled Areas therein.

Hence statement 1 is incorrect

Report by the Governor to the President regarding the administration of Scheduled Areas.—The Governorof each State having Scheduled Areas therein shall annually, or whenever so required by the President, make a report to the President regarding the administration of the Scheduled Areas in that State and the executive power of the Union shall extend to the giving of directions to the State as to the administration of the said areas

Hence statement 2 is incorrect

13. With reference to India, consider the following pairs: 

I. The National Automotive Board: Ministry of Commerce and Industry, 

II. The Coir Board: Ministry of Heavy Industries, 

III. The National Centre for Trade Information: Ministry of Micro, Small and Medium Enterprises. 

How many of the above pairs are correctly matched?
(a) Only one
(b) Only two
(c) All the three
(d) None

13. Ans-d

Explanation 

National Automotive Board under Ministry of heavy Industries has been constituted as per approval of the Cabinet in October 2012 and was registered under the Registration of Societies Act in August 2013. This organisation will provide a single platform for dealing with all matters relating to the automotive sector especially on matters pertaining to testing, certification, homologation, administering the automotive labs etc.  

Coir Board under Ministry of MSME is a statutory body established by the Government of India under a legislation enacted by the Parliament namely Coir Industry Act 1953 (45 of 1953) for the promotion and development of Coir Industry as well as export market of coir and coir products in India as a whole.

14. Consider the following subjects under the Constitution of India:

I. List I-Union List, in the Seventh Schedule,

II. Extent of the executive power of a State, 

III. Conditions of the Governor’s office.

For a constitutional amendment with respect to which of the above, ratification by the Legislatures of not less than one-half of the States is required before presenting the bill to the President of India for assent?
(a) I and II only
(b) II and III only
(c) I and III only
(d) I, II, and III

14. Ans-a

Explanation 

Amendment of the Constitution by Special Majority and Ratification by States

If an amendment of the Constitution seeks to make any change in articles relating to— 

• The election of the President; or
• The extent of the executive power of the Union and the States; or
• The Supreme Court and the High Courts; or 
• Distribution of legislative powers between the Union and the States; or
• Representation of States in Parliament; or 
• The very procedure for amendment as specified in the Constitution; 

The amendment, after it is passed by the special majority, has also to be ratified by Legislatures of not less than one-half of the States by resolutions to that effect passed by those Legislatures before the Bill making provision for such an amendment is presented to the President for assent. 

The Constitution does not contemplate any time-limit within which the States must signify their ratification or disapproval of the amendments referred to them

Hence 1 and 2 are correct

15. With reference to the Indian polity, consider the following statements:

I. The Governor of a State is not answerable to any court for the exercise and performance of the powers and duties of his/her office. 

II. No criminal proceedings shall be instituted or continued against the Governor during his/her term of office. 

III. Members of a State Legislature are not liable to any proceedings in any court in respect of anything said within the House. 

Which of the statements given above are correct?

(a) I and II only
(b) II and III only
(c) I and III only
(d) I, II, and III

15. Ans-d

Explanation 

Article 361. Protection of President and Governors and Rajpramukhs.—

(1)The President, or the Governor or Rajpramukh of a State, shall not beanswerable to any court for the exercise and performance of the powers and duties of his office or for any act done or purporting to be done by him in the exercise and performance of those powers and duties:

Hence Statement 1 is correct 

(2) No criminal proceedings whatsoever shall be instituted or continued against the President, or the Governor of a State, in any court during his term of office.

Hence Statement 2 is correct 

(3) No process for the arrest or imprisonment of the President, or theGovernor of a State, shall issue from any court during his term of office.

(4) No civil proceedings in which relief is claimed against the President, or the Governor of a State, shall be instituted during his term of office in any court in respect of any act done or purporting to be done by him in his personal capacity, whether before or after he entered upon his office as

President, or as Governor of such State, until the expiration of two months Next after notice in writing has been delivered to the President or the Governor , as the case may be, or left at his office, stating the nature of the proceedings, the cause of action therefor, the name, description and place of residence of the party by whom such proceedings are to be instituted and the relief, which he claims. 

Article 194(2) No member of the Legislature of a State shall be liable to any proceedings in any court in respect of anything said or any vote given by him in the Legislature or any committee thereof, and no person shall be so liable in respect of the publication by or under the authority of a House of such a Legislature of any report, paper, votes or proceedings.

Hence statement 3 is correct . 

16. Consider the following activities :

I. Production of crude oil

II. Refining, storage and distribution of petroleum

III. Marketing and sale of petroleum products

IV. Productions of natural gas

How many of the above activities are regulated by the Petroleum and Natural Gas Regulatory Board in our country?

(a) Only one

(b) Only two

(c) Only three

(d) All the four

16. Ans-b

Explanation 

PNGRB was constituted under The Petroleum and Natural Gas Regulatory Board Act, 2006 notified via Gazette Notification dated 31st March, 2006.

The Act provide for the establishment of Petroleum and Natural Gas Regulatory Board to protect the interests of consumers and entities engaged in specified activities relating to petroleum, petroleum products and natural gas and to promote competitive markets and for matters connected therewith or incidental thereto.

Further as enshrined in the act, the board has also been mandated to regulate the refining, processing, storage, transportation, distribution, marketing and sale of petroleum, petroleum products and natural gas excluding production of crude oil and natural gas so as and to ensure uninterrupted and adequate supply of petroleum, petroleum products and natural gas in all parts of the country. 

Hence 2 and 3 are correct