There were 19 Questions from Environment in 2022, of which
- 7 Questions were related to Climate Change
- 9 Questions were related to Environmental Ecology
- 3 Questions were related to Bio-Diversity
The examiner covered areas such as the Basics of Environmental Ecology, Basics of Climate Change and Climate Change Organisations, RAMSAR sites, Biodiversity in India, and Acts.
The level of the questions was moderate.
Questions were aimed to test the basic and applied sections of Environment, Bio-Diversity and Climate Change.
Previous Year UPSC Environment Questions With Explanation 2023
1. Among the following crops, which one is the most important anthropogenic source of both methane and nitrous oxide?
(a) Cotton
(b) Rice
(c) Sugarcane
(d) Wheat
1. Ans: b
Explanation:
Rice (Oryza sativa L.) is the most widely consumed staple food crop globally, holding particular significance in Asia. The production of rice is crucial for the food safety and national security of certain countries.
However, rice cultivation is also a notable source of greenhouse gas emissions, primarily methane (CH4) and nitrous oxide (N2O). Annual CH4 emissions from rice fields are estimated to contribute approximately 5-19% of global CH4 emissions. Additionally, agricultural N2O emissions surged by nearly 17% between 1990 and 2005, now accounting for 60% of global anthropogenic N2O emissions.
The flooded conditions created during rice cultivation promote anaerobic environments that favor the production of CH4 by methanogens. This CH4 can then be oxidized by methanotrophs under aerobic conditions, such as in the rhizosphere and at the soil-water interface. Ultimately, CH4 is released into the atmosphere through soil or water-atmosphere interfaces and via the rice plant’s aerenchyma.
Nitrogen fertilization and water management practices, such as alternating wetting and drying, facilitate N2O emissions through nitrification and/or denitrification processes in rice paddies. When applied correctly, fertilizer and management interventions can significantly help in controlling both CH4 and N2O emissions during rice cultivation.
Notably, different rice varieties exhibit considerable differences in total CH4 and N2O emissions. Thus, selecting rice varieties that yield lower CH4 and N2O emissions may serve as an effective strategy for mitigating greenhouse gas emissions from rice paddies.
Additional Information:
Other Methane emissions result from livestock and other agricultural practices, land use, and by the decay of organic waste in municipal solid waste landfills.
Other Nitrous oxide emissions include agricultural, land use, and industrial activities; combustion of fossil fuels and solid waste; as well as during treatment of wastewater.
Hence, option b is correct.
2. Consider the following pairs:
Wetland/Lake Location
1. Hokera Wetland : Punjab
2. Renuka Wetland : Himachal Pradesh
3. Rudrasagar Lake : Tripura
4. Sasthamkotta : Tamil Nadu
How many pairs given above are correctly matched?
(a) Only one pair
(b) Only two pairs
(c) Only three pairs
(d) All four pairs
2. Ans: b
Explanation:
All the four wetlands are designated as Ramsar sites as wetland of international significance.
- Hokera Wetland: Jammu & Kashmir-
- It is located at the northwest Himalayan biogeographic province of Kashmir, back of Pir Panchal.
- It is a natural perennial wetland contiguous to the Jhelum basin. It is the only site with remaining reedbeds of Kashmir.
- It is pathway of 68 waterfowl species like endangered White-eyed Pochard, coming from Siberia, China, Central Asia, and Northern Europe. It is also an important source of food, spawning ground and nursery for fishes.
- Typical marshy vegetation complexes inhabit this lake.
- Rudrasagar Lake: Tripura-
- Also known as Rudijala, it is a lowland sedimentation reservoir in the northeast hills, fed by three perennial streams (Noacherra, Durlavnaraya cherra, Kemtali cherra) discharging to the River Gomti (not to be confused with River Gomati of Ganga Basin).
- The lake is an ideal habitat for IUCN Redlisted Three-striped Roof Turtle- Kachuga dhongka.
- Owing to high rainfall (2500mm) and downstream topography, the wetland is regularly flooded with 4-5 times annual peak, assisting in groundwater recharge.
- Sasthamkotta Lake: Kerala-
- It is the largest freshwater lake in Kerala.
- It is spring-fed and the source of drinking water for half a million people in the Kollam district.
- The water contains no common salts or other minerals and supports no water plants; a larva called “cavaborus” abounds and eliminates bacteria in the water, thus contributing to its exceptional purity.
- Renuka Wetland: Himachal Pradesh-
- It is a natural wetland with freshwater springs and inland subterranean karst formations.
- Renuka is oblong shaped wetland flanked by two parallel steep hills running east-west. It is shaped like a sleeping women.
- Renuka wetland is a perennial water body fed by 21 seasonal streams which are vigorous particularly during the monsoon season. Internal springs of the wetland are the perennial source of water.
- The underground network of channels in the Limestone and Dolomite formations of the area are possibly conduit to discharge groundwater to the wetland.
- The climate of the area is of sub-tropical monsoonic type. The average precipitation at Renuka wetland area is 150-199.
- The soil composition of the region also show a heterogeneous mixture of carbonate rocks, sandstones, shales, siltstone in various proportion. The soil cover is thin due to weatheringl-limited conditions.
- The wetland is covered with vegetation of sub-tropical forest comprises of Chhal, Sain, Bahera, Harar, Kachnar, Tun, Shisham and Amaltas etc. Natural Sal forest exists in the northern side of the wetland.
Hence, option b is correct.
3. “Climate Action Tracker” which monitors the emission reduction pledges of different countries is a:
(a) Database created by coalition of research organisations
(b) Wing of “International Panel of Climate Change”
(c) Committee under “United Nations Framework Convention on Climate Change”
(d) Agency promoted and financed by United Nations Environment Programme and World Bank
3. Ans: a
Explanation:
The Climate Action Tracker is an independent scientific project that tracks government climate action and measures it against the globally agreed Paris Agreement’s aim of “holding warming well below 2°C, and pursuing efforts to limit warming to 1.5°C”.
A collaboration of two organisations, Climate Analytics and NewClimate Institute, the CAT has been providing this independent analysis to policymakers since 2009.
Hence, option a is correct.
4. Consider the following statements:
1. The Climate Group is an international non-profit organisation that drives climate action by building large networks and runs them.
2. The International Energy Agency, in partnership with the Climate Group, launched a global initiative, “EP100”.
3. EP100 brings together leading companies committed to driving innovation in energy efficiency and increasing competitiveness while delivering on emission reduction goals.
4. Some Indian companies are members of EP100.
5. The International Energy Agency is the Secretariat to the “Under2 Coalition”.
Which of the statements given above are correct?
(a) 1,2, 4 and 5
(b) 1,3 and 4 only
(c) 2,3 and 5 only
(d) 1, 2, 3, 4 and 5
4. Ans: b
Explanation:
The Climate Group is an international non-profit organisation founded in 2003, with offices in London, New York, New Delhi, Amsterdam and Beijing. Its network includes over 500 multinational businesses in 175 markets worldwide and work closely with governments at all levels.
The Climate Group is Secretariat to the “Under2 Coalition”, which is made up of 167 state and regional governments and has been named one of the international cooperative initiatives with the highest potential for emissions reductions.
Hence, statement 1 is correct & statement 5 is incorrect.
The Climate Group’s global EP100 initiative is done in partnership with the Alliance to Save Energy, brings together a growing group of energy-smart companies committed to using energy more productively, to lower greenhouse gas emissions and accelerate a clean economy.
Hence, statement 2 is incorrect.
EP100 is a global corporate energy efficiency initiative, led by Climate Group, bringing together over 125 ambitious businesses committed to improving their energy efficiency.
EP100 members are committed to doubling their energy productivity, rolling out energy management systems, or achieving net zero carbon buildings.
Hence, statement 3 is correct.
Mahindra & Mahindra became the first Indian company to join a global energy campaign led by Climate Group.
Hence, statement 4 is correct.
5. “If rainforests and tropical forests are the lungs of the Earth, then surely wetlands function as its kidneys.” Which one of the following functions of wetlands best reflects the above statement?
(a) The water cycle in wetlands involves surface runoff, subsoil percolation and evaporation.
(b) Algae form the nutrient base upon which fish, crustaceans, molluscs, birds, reptiles and mammals thrive.
(c) Wetlands play a vital role in maintaining sedimentation balance and soil stabilisation.
(d) Aquatic plants absorb heavy metals and excess nutrients.
5. Ans: d
Explanation:
According to Ramsar convention wetlands are defined as “areas of marsh, fen, peatland or water, whether natural or artificial, permanent or temporary, with water that is static or flowing, fresh, brackish or salt, including areas of marine water the depth of which at low tide does not exceed six metres”.
Significance of Wetlands:
- Wetlands are amongst the Earth’s most productive ecosystems. These delicate environments have significant ecologic and economic values.
- Wetlands ecosystems are vital parts of hydrological cycle, highly productive, support rich biodiversity and provide a wide range of ecosystem services such as water storage, water purification, flood mitigation, storm buffers, erosion control, aquifer recharge, microclimate regulation, aesthetic enhancement of landscapes while simultaneously supporting many significant recreational, social and cultural activities.
- They have been described both as “the kidneys of the landscape”, because of the functions they perform in the hydrological and chemical cycles, nutrient cycling, their high and long-term capacity to filter pollutants including heavy metals and trap sediments from the water that flows through them.
- Wetlands store water to ensure supply during dry periods. Wetlands work like giant sponges. They store water and then slowly release it and this helps to deal with dry seasons with little rainfall.
- They are called “biological supermarkets” because of the extensive food webs and rich biodiversity they support.
Hence, option d is correct.
6. In the context of WHO Air Quality guidelines, consider the following:
1. The 24-hour mean of PM 2.5 should not exceed 15 ug/m³ and annual mean of PM 2.5 should not exceed 5 µg/m³.
2. In a year, the highest levels of ozone pollution occur during the periods of inclement weather.
3. PM-10 can penetrate the lung barrier and enter the bloodstream.
4. Excessive ozone in the air can trigger asthma.
Which of the statements given above are correct?
(a) 1, 3 and 4
(b) 1 and 4 only
(c) 2, 3 and 4
(d) 1 and 2 only
6. Ans: b
Explanation:
Hence, statement 1 is correct.
In the stratosphere, ozone molecules play an essential role – absorbing ultraviolet radiation from the Sun and shielding Earth from dangerous rays. But in the troposphere, near ground level, ozone molecules are air pollutants.
A small amount of ozone does occur naturally at ground level. Plants and soil release some. Some migrates down from the stratosphere. Most of the ozone that is found near the ground comes from vehicle exhaust and emissions from factories, power plants, and refineries.
Unlike most other air pollutants, ozone as apollutant is not directly emitted into the air. Tropospheric ozone is formed by the interaction of sunlight, particularly ultraviolet light, with hydrocarbons and nitrogen oxides, which are emitted by automobile tailpipes and smokestacks. In urban areas, high ozone levels usually occur during warm summer months.
Typically, ozone levels reach their peak in mid to late afternoon, after exhaust fumes from morning rush hour have had time to react in sunlight. A hot, sunny, still day is the perfect environment for the production of ozone pollution. At the end of the day, as the Sun starts to set, the production of ozone begins to subside. To form, ozone needs sunshine to fuel the chemical reaction. Though ozone is present in winter as well, the levels are lower owing to low temperatures, as it needs sharp sun to aid its formation.
Good ozone, bad ozone
Scientists have divided the atmosphere into different layers, each with a name. The layer closest to the ground, where we live and fly in jets, is called the troposphere [TRO-po-sphere]. Above that layer is the stratosphere [STRAT-o-sphere], which goes to about 30 miles high.
Ultraviolet radiation from the Sun causes sunburns and skin cancer. Ozone high in the stratosphere shields us from much of this ultraviolet radiation.- That’s good.
But at the top of the troposphere, ozone acts as a greenhouse gas and adds to global warming. That’s bad.
In the middle region of the troposphere, ozone helps to clean the atmosphere of certain pollutants.- That’s good.
But in the atmosphere close to Earth’s surface where we live, ozone adds to smog and is hard on plants and animals, including us. That’s bad.
Hence, statement 2 is incorrect.
Ozone pollution induces respiratory problems. When it’s inhaled, ozone can damage lung tissues. Ozone is harmful to all types of cells. It can impair an athlete’s performance, create more frequent attacks for individuals with asthma, cause eye irritation, chest pain, coughing, nausea, headaches and chest congestion. It can worsen heart disease, bronchitis, and emphysema.
Ozone also damages materials like rubber, textile dyes, fibers, and certain paints. These materials can be weakened or degraded by exposure to ozone. Some elastic materials can become brittle and crack, while paints and fabric dyes may fade more quickly.
Hence, statement 4 is correct.
Owing to its reactive nature, Ozone has 1-hour and 8-hour standards compared to particulate matter (PM) which has a 24-hour standard, because even a short-term exposure to the gas can worsen respiratory conditions. These standards are prescribed by the CPCB among one of the twelve (12) pollutants under National Ambient Air Quality Standard (NAAQS), 2009. The ambient air quality standards for Ozone (O3) is prescribed as 100 µg/m3 for 8-hourly monitored value and 180 µg/m3 for 1-hourly monitored value for industrial, residential, rural and ecological sensitive area. As per the NAAQS, the method of measurement of Ozone (O3) in ambient air is UV photometric, Chemiluminescence, and Chemical method.
Particulate matter:
PM stands for particulate matter (also called particle pollution): the term for a mixture of solid particles and liquid droplets found in the air. Some particles, such as dust, dirt, soot, or smoke, are large or dark enough to be seen with the naked eye. Others are so small they can only be detected using an electron microscope.
It has been found that PMs with an aerodynamic diameter smaller than 10 µm have a greater impact on human health. One group of PM identified, PM2.5, have small diameters, however large surface areas and may therefore be capable of carrying various toxic stuffs, passing through the filtration of nose hair, reaching the end of the respiratory tract with airflow and accumulate there by diffusion, damaging other parts of the body through air exchange in the lungs and then entering in the blood stream. PM2.5 causes asthma, respiratory inflammation, jeopardizes lung functions and even promotes cancers and impact on human respiratory system.
Hence, statement 3 is incorrect.
7. With reference to “Gucchi” sometimes mentioned in the news, consider the following statements:
1. It is a fungus.
2. It grows in some Himalayan forest areas.
3. It is commercially cultivated in the Himalayan foothills of north-eastern India.
Which of the statements given above is/are correct?
(a) 1 only
(b) 3 only
(c) 1 and 2
(d) 2 and 3
7. Ans: c
Explanation:
Gucchi is a fungus in the family Morchellaceae of the Ascomycota.
Hence, statement 1 is correct.
Gucchi are mushrooms found on the foothills of the Himalayas. One of the most sought- after edible mushrooms. It is rich in vitamins like riboflavin, fiber, nutrients, iron and phosphorus and is low in carbohydrates, calories, sodium, cholesterol and fat. It is the richest source of Vitamin D.
Apart from its flavour, guchhi also owes its high price to the challenges in cultivation. The mushrooms cannot be cultivated commercially as it grows only in wild, in conifer forests across temperate regions, and the foothills in Himachal Pradesh, Uttarakand, and Jammu and Kashmir. And it takes months for villagers to collect enough of these mushrooms, dry them and bring them to the market.
Hence, statement 2 is correct & statement 3 is incorrect.
8. With reference to polyethylene terephthalate, the use of which is so widespread in our daily lives, consider the following statements:
1. Its fibres can be blended with wool and cotton fibres to reinforce their properties.
2. Containers made of it can be used to store any alcoholic beverage.
3. Bottles made of it can be recycled into other products.
4. Articles made of it can be easily disposed of by incineration without causing greenhouse gas emissions.
Which of the statements given above are correct?
(a) 1 and 3
(b) 2 and 4
(c) 1 and 4
(d) 2 and 3
8. Ans: a
Explanation:
Polyethylene Terephthalate(PET) is the most common thermoplastic polymer resin of the polyester family. It is used in containers and plastics for liquids and foods. PET is 100% recyclable, and hence preferred by manufacturers.
Hence, statement 3 is correct.
PET is steadily gaining market share as a garment fibre due to its reuse and recycling and the significant surplus of post-consumer waste in the form of bottles and cans. Fibres made from PET have outstanding wear resistance, low moisture absorption and are very durable. Textile applications include blankets, bed sheets, comforters, carpets, cushioning in pillows, upholstery padding and upholstered furniture.
Hence, statement 1 is correct.
Maharashtra government had put a ban on packaging of alcohol in PET (polyethylene terephthalate) bottles because studies have shown that PET leachate leads to contamination of alcohol when stored in it. A toxic substance, antimony, increases when alcohol is stored in PET bottles.
Hence, statement 2 is incorrect.
Polyethylene, like other plastics, is not inert and is known to release additives and other degradation products into the environment throughout its lifetime. “For example, the additive bisphenol-A used in the manufacture of many plastic products is leaching as plastics age, and hydrocarbon gases are produced during high-temperature decomposition (>202°C including incineration).
Hence, statement 4 is incorrect.
9. Which of the following is not a bird?
(a) Golden Mahseer
(b) Indian Nightjar
(c) Spoonbill
(d) White Ibis
9. Ans: a
Explanation:
Golden Mahseer: It is a fish which typically lives in fast-moving, relatively cold waters, inhabiting hill streams although they’ve also successfully adapted to introduction in lakes and reservoirs. The golden mahseer is found in the Himalayan foothills, the Indus, Ganga and Brahmaputra basins as well as in the south of India. Most of India’s golden mahseer are found in Uttarakhand state, where it is the official state fish.
Indian Nightjar: Nightjars are small, medium-sized birds with short toes, short beaks, and long feathers. They are nocturnal and live in heathland and young conifer plantations. It is active at night and has a jarring voice (hence, night+jar).
Cryptically-colored nightbird. It is found in a range of wooded habitats, from hilly dry forest to garden edges. Listen for its distinctive song, an accelerating knocking akin to a ping-pong ball dropping and bouncing rapidly on the floor.
Ibis, has about 26 species of medium-sized wading birds (Wading birds are long-legged birds with long bills. They have long legs to wade through shallow water without getting wet, and long toes to support them when standing in mud or sand).
They constitute the family of Threskiornithidae, which also includes the spoonbills and ibises. They occur in all warm regions except on South Pacific islands. They wade in shallow lagoons, lakes, bays, and marshes and use their slender, down-curved bills to feed on small fishes and soft mollusks. It has a loud call and is noisy when breeding. It builds its nest most often on the top of a large tree or palm.
Spoonbill: Spoonbill are most easily distinguished from Ibises through the shape of their bill which is long and flat and wider at the end. The eyes are positioned to provide spoonbills with binocular vision, although while foraging tactile senses are important. Nostrils are located near the base of the bill so that the bird can breathe while the bill is submerged in the water.
Hence, option a is correct.
10. Which of the following are nitrogen-fixing plants?
1. Alfalfa
2. Amaranth
3. Chickpea
4. Clover
5. Purslane (Kulfa)
6. Spinach
Select the correct answer using the code given below:
(a) 1, 3 and 4 only
(b) 1, 3, 5 and 6 only
(c) 2, 4, 5 and 6 only
(d) 1, 2, 4, 5 and 6
10. Ans: a
Explanation:
Nitrogen fixation is a process that implies the transformation of the relatively non-reactive atmospheric N2 into its more reactive compounds (nitrates, nitrites, or ammonia).
The list of nitrogen-fixing plants for agriculture is quite versatile and includes:
- Beans: fava (aka faba), alfalfa, green beans, runner beans, field beans, sweet beans, peanuts (aka groundnuts), soybeans, cream beans, black-eyed beans, or purple-hulled beans, lupins, lentils, cowpeas, chickpeas.
- Vetches: hairy, American, wood, tufted.
- Clovers: white, red, crimson, Silver River.
Hence, option a is correct.
11. “Biorock technology” is talked about in which one of the following situations?
(a) Restoration of damaged coral reefs
(b) Development of building materials using plant residues
(c) Identification of areas for exploration/extraction of shale gas
(d) Providing salt licks for wild animals in forests/protected areas
11. Ans: a
Explanation:
Biorock is the name given to the substance formed by electro accumulation of minerals dissolved in seawater on steel structures that are lowered onto the sea bed and are connected to a power source, in this case solar panels that float on the surface.
The technology works by passing a small amount of electrical current through electrodes in the water. When a positively charged anode and negatively charged cathode are placed on the seafloor, with an electric current flowing between them, calcium ions combine with carbonate ions and adhere to the structure (cathode). This results in calcium carbonate formation. Coral larvae adhere to the CaCO3 and grow quickly.
The Zoological Survey of India (ZSI), with help from Gujarat’s forest department, is attempting for the first time a process to restore coral reefs using biorock or mineral accretion technology.
Hence, option a is correct.
12. The “Miyawaki method” is well known for the:
(a) Promotion of commercial farming in arid and semi-arid areas
(b) Development of gardens using genetically modified flora
(c) Creation of mini forests in urban areas
(d) Harvesting wind energy on coastal areas and on sea surfaces
12. Ans: c
Explanation:
Miyawaki Method: Named after Japanese botanist Akira Miyawaki, this method involves planting two to four different types of indigenous trees within every square metre. In this method, the trees become self-sustaining and they grow to their full length within three years.
The methodology was developed in the 1970s, with the basic objective to densify green cover within a small parcel of land. Unlike commercial forestry, in Miyawaki Forestry, only native varieties of plants are selected in specific ratios and sequences, creating multilayer, maintenance-free forests, and 100 percent self-sustainable ecosystems.
Miyawaki uses only local species. The forests blend with the local ecosystem, last longer, and can exist in urban spaces.
Hence, option c is correct.
13. Consider the following statements:
1. The India Sanitation Coalition is a platform to promote sustainable sanitation and is funded by the Government of India and the World Health Organisation.
2. The National Institute of Urban Affairs is an apex body of the Ministry of Housing and Urban Affairs in the Government of India and provides innovative solutions to address the challenges of Urban India.
Which of the statements given above is/are correct?
(a) 1 only
(b) 2 only
(c) Both 1 and 2
(d) Neither 1 nor 2
13. Ans: d
Explanation:
India Sanitation Coalition (ISC), launched in June 2015, at Federation of Indian Chamber Commerce and Industry (FICCI), enables and supports safe and sustainable sanitation by bringing multiple organisations on a common platform through a range of catalytic actions.
The ISC has NGOs, donors, corporates, foundations, trusts and government as partners, working together to create larger impact.
Hence, statement 1 is incorrect.
The National Institute of Urban Affairs (NIUA) is India’s leading national think tank on urban planning and development. As a hub for generation and dissemination of cutting-edge research in the urban sector, NIUA seeks to provide innovative solutions to address the challenges of a fast urbanising India, and pave the way for more inclusive and sustainable cities of the future.
NIUA was established as an autonomous body in 1976 under the aegis of the Ministry of Housing and Urban Affairs (MoHUA). Then the institute was registered as a society under the Societies Registration Act XXI of 1860. Since then, it has worked closely with the Ministry of Housing and Urban Affairs, alongside other government and civil sectors, to identify key areas of research, and address the lacunae in urban policy and planning.
Hence, statement 2 is incorrect.
14. Which one of the following has been constituted under the Environment (Protection) Act, 1986?
(a) Central Water Commission
(b) Central Ground Water Board
(c) Central Ground Water Authority
(d) National Water Development Agency
14. Ans: c
Explanation:
Central Ground Water Authority (CGWA) has been constituted under Section 3 (3) of the Environment (Protection) Act, 1986 to regulate, control, development and management of groundwater resources in the country and to issue regulatory directions for the purpose.
Hence Option a is correct.
Central Water Commission is a premier Technical Organization of India in the field of Water Resources. It is presently functioning as an attached office of the Ministry of Jal Shakti, Department of Water Resources, River Development and Ganga Rejuvenation, Government of India.
Central Ground Water Board (CGWB) is a scientific department under Department of Water Resources, RD & GR, Ministry of Jal Shakti, Government of India. It is a multidisciplinary Scientific Organization with a mandate to “Develop and disseminate technologies for Scientific and Sustainable development and management of India’s Ground Water Resources, including monitoring exploration, assessment and augmentation.
The National Water Development Agency (NWDA) was set up in July 1982 as Autonomous Society under the Societies Registration Act 1860. Its functions include:
- To carry out surveys and investigations related to Peninsular and Himalayan river system
- To explore the feasibility of intra-states links and preparation of Detailed Project Report (DPR) of river link proposals under National Perspective Plan (NPP)
- To implement various components of projects of PM Krishi Sinchayee Yojana.
Hence, option c is correct.
15. Which one of the following statements best describes the ‘Polar Code’?
(a) It is the international code of safety for ships operating in polar waters.
(b) It is the agreement of the countries around the North Pole regarding the demarcation of their territories in the polar region.
(c) It is a set of norms to be followed by the countries whose scientists undertake research studies in the North Pole and South Pole.
(d) It is a trade and security agreement of the member countries of the Arctic Council.
15. Ans: a
Explanation:
International Maritime Organization‘s International Code for Ships Operating in Polar Waters (Polar Code) is mandatory under both the International Convention for the Safety of Life at Sea (SOLAS) and the International Convention for the Prevention of Pollution from Ships (MARPOL).
The Polar Code covers the full range of design, construction, equipment, operational, training, search and rescue and environmental protection matters relevant to ships operating in the inhospitable waters surrounding the two poles.
The Polar Code entered into force on 1 January 2017.
The Polar Code includes mandatory and recommendatory measures covering safety part and pollution prevention. The Code will require ships intending to operating in the defined waters of the Antarctic and Arctic to apply for a Polar Ship Certificate. The issuance of a certificate would require an assessment, taking into account the anticipated range of operating conditions and hazards the ship may encounter in the polar waters.
Hence, option a is correct.
16. Which one of the following best describes the term “greenwashing”?
(a) Conveying a false impression that a company’s products are eco-friendly and environmentally sound
(b) Non-inclusion of ecological/ environmental costs in the Annual Financial Statements of a country
(c) Ignoring the disastrous ecological consequences while infrastructure undertaking development
(d) Making mandatory provisions for environmental costs in a government project/programme
16. Ans: a
Explanation:
Greenwashing refers to misleading the general public into believing that companies, sovereigns or civic administrators are doing more for the environment than they actually are. This may involve making a product or policy seem more environmentally friendly or less damaging than it is in reality. The term was coined by environmentalist Jay Westerveld in 1986.
Greenwashing manifests itself in several ways – some more obvious than others. Tactics include:
- Claiming to be on track to reduce emissions when no credible plan is in place.
- Being vague or non-specific about a company’s operations.
- Misleading labels such as “green” or “eco-friendly,” which do not have standard definitions.
- Implying that a minor improvement has a major impact.
- Emphasizing a single environmental attribute while ignoring other impacts.
- Claiming to avoid illegal or non-standard practices that are irrelevant to a product.
- Communicating the sustainability attributes of a product in isolation of activities, e.g. a garment made from recycled materials that is produced in a high-emitting factory.
According to draft guidelines by Department of Consumer Affairs, penalty will be issued for misleading advertisement for ‘Greenwashing’ (including usage of other terms like ‘cruelty free’, ‘eco-conscious’ etc) by company, which will be governed as per Consumer Protection Act, 2019. Similar guidelines were issued by Advertisements Standard Council of India.
Hence, option a is correct.
17. With reference to Indian laws about wildlife protection, consider the following statements :
1. Wild animals are the sole property of the government.
2. When a wild animal is declared protected, such animal is entitled for equal protection whether it is found in protected areas or outside.
3. Apprehension of a protected wild animal becoming a danger to human life is sufficient ground for its capture or killing.
Which of the statements given above is/are correct?
(a) 1 and 2
(b) 2 only
(c) 1 and 3
(d) 3 only
17. Ans: b
Explanation:
Section 11. Hunting of wild animals to be permitted in certain cases.
(a) The Chief Wild Life Warden may, if he is satisfied that any wild animal specified in Schedule I has become dangerous to human life or is so disabled or diseased as to be beyond recovery, by Order in writing and stating the reasons therefor, permit any person to hunt such animal or cause such animal to be hunted .
Here the satisfaction of Chief Wild Life Warden matters but not apprehension. Mere apprehension or fear that a wild animal could endanger human life is not a ground for capture or killing.
Hence, statement 3 is incorrect .
Section 39 – Wild animals, etc., to be Government property.
wild animal, other than vermin, which is hunted under section 11, kept or bred in captivity or hunted shall be the property of the State Government, and, wheresuch animal is hunted in a sanctuary or National Park declared by the Central Government, shall be the property of the Central Government.
So wild animals can be the property of government if hunted or bred in captivity but not the property of the government/ private party when they are in wild .
Hence, statement 1 is incorrect .
The law governing the subject of wildlife, the Wildlife (Protection) Act, 1972, does not discriminate between animals found in protected areas and outside. It provides for equal protection for wild animals irrespective of where they are found.
Hence, statement 2 is correct .
18. Certain species of which one of the following organisms are well known as cultivators of fungi?
(a) Ant
(b) Cockroach
(c) Crab
(d) Spider
18. Ans: a
Explanation:
Ants belonging to a South American group had switched from a hunter-gatherer lifestyle to subsistence farming of fungi that grew on decomposing, woody plant matter some 55 to 60 million years ago, shortly after the dinosaurs died out.
There are leaf cutter ants who grow fungus on these leaves, and feed this fungus, and not the leaves to their larvae.
Some ants also use ‘aphids’, a type of insect to get milk like sugary liquid.
Other cultivators of fungi are termites, ambrosia beetles and marsh periwinkles.
Hence, option a is correct.
19. Consider the following:
1. Carbon monoxide
2. Nitrogen oxide
3. Ozone
4. Sulphur dioxide
Excess of which of the above in the environment is/are cause (s) of acid rain?
(a) 1, 2 and 3
(b) 2 and 4 only
(c) 4 only
(d) 1, 3 and 4
19. Ans: b
Explanation:
Acid rain results when sulfur dioxide (SO2) and nitrogen oxides (NOX) are emitted into the atmosphere and transported by wind and air currents. The SO2 and NOX react with water, oxygen and other chemicals to form sulfuric and nitric acids. These then mix with water and other materials before falling to the ground.
While a small portion of the SO2 and NOX that cause acid rain is from natural sources such as volcanoes, most of it comes from the burning of fossil fuels. The major sources of SO2 and NOX in the atmosphere are:
- Burning of fossil fuels to generate electricity. Two thirds of SO2 and one fourth of NOX in the atmosphere come from electric power generators.
- Vehicles and heavy equipment.
- Manufacturing, oil refineries and other industries.
Hence carbon monoxide and ozone are not involved in the formation of acid rain.
Hence, option b is correct.