There were 15 Questions from Geography in 2023, of which

• 3 Questions on Fundamentals of Physical Geography
• 3 Questions on Indian Physical Geography
• 2 Questions on World Physical Geography 
• 7 Questions on Economic Geography

Most of the questions were aimed at testing the basic understanding of the subject and conceptual clarity.

Overall, the level of the questions was moderate. 

Previous Year UPSC Geography Questions (PYQs) With Explanation 2023

1. Consider the following statements : 

1. Jhelum River passes through Wular Lake. 

2. Krishna River directly feeds Kolleru Lake. 

3. Meandering of Gandak River formed Kanwar Lake. 

How many of the statements given above are correct? 

(a) Only one 

(b) Only two 

(c) All three 

(d) None

1. Ans: a 

Explanation:

The Jhelum rises in a spring at Verinag in the south-eastern part of the Kashmir Valley. If flows northwards from Wular Lake and further down south-westwards. The river flows through the Kashmir Valley. At Muzaffarabad, the river takes a sharp swing southward and the Kishanganga joins it on its right bank. Thereafter, it forms the India-Pakistan boundary and emerges at the Potwar Plateau. It joins the Chenab at Timmu.

Hence, statement 1 is correct.    

Kolleru Lake –  A natural eutrophic lake, situated between the two major river basins of the Godavari and the Krishna functions as a natural flood balancing reservoir between the deltas of the two rivers.

Hence, statement 2 is incorrect.  

Kabartal Wetland, also known as Kanwar Jheel, is situated in Begusarai district in the state of Bihar,  within an extensive floodplain complex; it floods during the monsoon season to a depth of 1.5 metres. This absorption of floodwaters is a vital service in Bihar State where 70% of the land is vulnerable to inundation. During the dry season, areas of marshland dry out and are used for agriculture. 

The Gandak comprises two streams, namely Kaligandak and Trishulganga. It rises in the Nepal Himalayas between the Dhaulagiri and Mount Everest and drains the central part of Nepal. It enters the Ganga plain in Champaran district of Bihar and joins the Ganga at Sonpur near Patna.

Hence, statement 3 is incorrect.  

2. Consider the following pairs :

                Port                                                                             Well known as 

1. Kamarajar Port                           :                  First major port in India registered as a company

2. Mundra Port                               :                  Largest privately owned port in India 

3. Visakhapatnam Port                  :                  Largest container port in Port India 

How many of the above pairs are correctly matched? 

(a) Only one pair

 (b) Only two pairs 

(c) All three pairs 

(d) None of the pairs

2. Ans: b

Explanation:

Kamarajar Port: It is the 12th major port of India, and the first port in India which is a public company. The Kamarajar Port is the only corporatised major port and is registered as a company.  The port was declared as a major port under the Indian Ports Act, 1908 in March 1999 and incorporated as Ennore Port Limited under the Companies Act, 1956 in October 1999. 

Hence, 1st pair is correctly matched. 

Mundra Port: All-weather port is the largest commercial port in India. It also has the largest Coal Import Terminal which gives faster cargo evacuation and minimal turnaround time. 

It is located on the northern shores of the Gulf of Kutch near Mundra, Kutch district, Gujarat. Formerly operated by Mundra Port and Special Economic Zone Limited (MPSEZ) owned by Adani Group, it was later expanded into Adani Ports & SEZ Limited (APSEZ) managing several ports.

Hence, 2nd pair is correctly matched.

The Jawaharlal Nehru Port Authority (JNPA) at Navi Mumbai is a premier container handling Port in India accounting for around 50% of the total containerised cargo volume. It is India’s leading container port.

The Visakhapatnam Port, one of the thirteen Major Ports of India, is an all-weather natural Port and the fastest-growing maritime gateway to peninsular India.

Hence, 3rd pair is incorrectly matched.

3. Consider the following trees: 

1. Jackfruit (Artocarpus heterophyllus) 

2. Mahua (Madhuca indica) 

3. Teak (Tectona grandis) 

How many of the above are deciduous trees? 

(a) Only one 

(b) Only two 

(c) All three 

(d) None

3. Ans: b

Explanation:

Tropical Moist Deciduous Forests:

These forests are found in areas of moderate rainfall of 100 to 200 cm per annum, mean annual temperature of about 27⁰C and the average annual relative humidity of 60 to 75 per cent. The trees of these forests drop their leaves for about 6-8 weeks during the spring and early summer when sufficient moisture for the leaves is not available. The main species found in these forests are teak, sal, padauk, laurel, white chuglam, badam, dhup, chikrosi, kokko, haldu, rosewood, mahua, bijasal, lendi, semul, irul, dhaman, amla, kusum, bamboo etc. 

Tropical Rain Forests

Cauliflory or bearing of flowers and fruits on the trunk of the tree rather than at the ends of branches is a characteristic of Rain forest, the advantage is that the plant can produce larger, heavier fruits, the biggest of all such cauliflorous fruits is Jackfruit (Artocarpus heterophyllus). Jack fruit probably originated in Rain forest which once covered Southern India, currently cultivated throughout southeastern Asia.

Hence, option b is correct.

4. Consider the following statements: 

1. India has more arable area than China. 

2. The proportion of irrigated area is more in India as compared to China. 

3. The average productivity per hectare in Indian agriculture is higher than that in China.

How many of the above statements are correct? 

(a) Only one 

(b) Only two 

(c) All three 

(d) None

4. Ans: a

Explanation:        

Arable land is defined by the United Nations Food and Agriculture Organization (FAO) as land currently used, or potentially capable of being used, to grow seasonal crops. This definition includes annual crops, such as wheat, beans, and rice, but excludes land used for pasturing, tree farming (or “silviculture”), or more durable agricultural installations such as vineyards, orchards, and coffee and rubber plantations.

India’s Position in World Agriculture                              

Hence, statement 1 is correct.

Source: https://desagri.gov.in/wp-content/uploads/2023/05/Agricultural-Statistics-at-a-Glance-2022.pdf

China has a higher percentage of irrigated land compared to India’s irrigated area.

China- 53.8%

India 36.6%

Source: https://icid-ciid.org/icid_data_web/World-irrigated-area.pdf

Hence, statement 2 is incorrect.

China’s productivity in most crops is 50 to 100% higher than India’s. Both India and China are among the world’s top three producers of important crops such as rice, wheat, cotton, and maize, but China produces much more from each hectare of land than India does.

It is worth noting that China’s fertiliser consumption in 2016 was 503 kg/ha of arable area compared to just 166 kg/ha for India, as per World Bank estimates.

Hence, statement 3 is incorrect.

As per the Seventh Schedule of the Constitution of India, land comes under the purview of State Governments. Therefore, State governments are to take suitable steps to check the diversion of arable land for commercial non-agricultural purposes.

5. Ilmenite and rutile, abundantly available in certain coastal tracts of India, are rich sources of which one of the following? 

(a) Aluminium 

(b) Copper 

(c) Iron 

(d) Titanium

5. Ans: d

Explanation:

Heavy mineral sands comprise a group of seven minerals, viz, ilmenite, leucoxene (brown ilmenite), rutile, zircon, sillimanite, garnet, and monazite. Ilmenite (FeO.TiO2 ) and rutile (TiO2 ) are the two chief minerals of titanium.

Ilmenite and rutile along with other heavy minerals are important constituents of beach sand deposits found right from Moti Daman-Umbrat coast (Gujarat) in the west to Odisha coast in the east.

Tamil Nadu is the leading producer of ilmenite contributing 66% of the total production followed by Odisha 25% and Kerala 9 per cent. 

Odisha is the leading producer of rutile accounting for 43% of the total production followed by Tamil Nadu 38% and Kerala 19 per cent.

Hence, option d is correct.

6. About three-fourths of world’s cobalt, a metal required for the manufacture of batteries for electric motor vehicles, is produced by: 

(a) Argentina 

(b) Botswana 

(c) The Democratic Republic Of the Congo 

(d) Kazakhstan

6. Ans: c

Explanation:

Democratic Republic Of the Congo (DRC)  is the world’s largest producer of cobalt from mines, accounting for over 70 per cent of global cobalt mine production in 2023. DRC is also Africa’s leading producer of copper.

 Cobalt is a silver-grey, hard, and lustrous metal that is only found in the Earth’s crust in chemically combined form. Cobalt is, therefore, primarily mined as a byproduct of nickel and copper mining. From there, cobalt is produced by reductive smelting. 

DRC has by far the world’s largest reserves of cobalt. Cobalt is primarily used in lithium-ion batteries for electric devices such as laptops and electric vehicles. 

Hence, option c is correct.

7. Which one of the following is a part of the Congo Basin? 

(a) Cameroon 

(b) Nigeria 

(c) South Sudan 

(d) Uganda 

7. Ans: a

Explanation:

The Congo Basin is Known as the “lungs of Africa”, it is the largest carbon sink in the world, absorbing more carbon than the Amazon. The Congo Basin spans across six countries—Cameroon, Central African Republic, Democratic Republic of the Congo, Republic of the Congo, Equatorial Guinea and Gabon.

Hence, option a is correct.

8. Consider the following statements : 

1. Amarkantak Hills are at the confluence of Vindhya and Sahyadri Ranges. 

2. Biligirirangan Hills constitute the easternmost part of Satpura Range. 

3. Seshachalam Hills constitute the southernmost part of Western Ghats. 

How many of the statements given above are correct? 

(a) Only one 

(b) Only two 

(c) All three 

(d) None

8. Ans: d

Explanation: 

Location of Amarkantak in Madhya Pradesh in India at the confluence of Maikal Hill, Satpura and Vindhyan ranges. The area is a “Genetic Express Highway” linking two biological Hot Spots namely Western Ghats and Eastern Himalayas. A total of more than a thousand species spread over 151 plant families have been reported from the area. 

Hence, statement 1 is incorrect.

Biligirirangan is a hill range situated in south-eastern Karnataka, at its border with Tamil Nadu in South India.                                                                                                                                                                                                                                                                                                                                                                                                                                                                                                                                                                                                      

The Satpura Range is a series of seven mountains. It runs in an east-west direction south of the Vindhyas and in between the Narmada and the Tapi. Commencing from the Rajpipla Hills in the west, through the Mahadev Hills to the Maikala Range, it stretches for a distance of about 900 km.

Hence, statement 2 is incorrect.

Seshachalam Hills, hill ranges of the Eastern Ghats, southern Andhra Pradesh state, southeastern India. They are bounded by the Rayalaseema uplands in the west and northwest and the Nandyal Valley (formed by the Kunderu River) in the northeast. 

Hence, statement 3 is incorrect.

9. With reference to India’s projects on connectivity, consider the following statements:

1. East-West Corridor under Golden Quadrilateral Project connects Dibrugarh and Surat. 

2. Trilateral Highway connects Moreh in Manipur and Chiang Mai in Thailand via Myanmar. 

3. Bangladesh-China-India-Myanmar Economic Corridor connects Varanasi in Uttar Pradesh with Kunming in China. · 

How many of the above statements are correct? 

(a) Only one 

(b) Only two 

(c) All three 

(d) None

9. Ans: d

Explanation:

Golden Quadrilateral links the Delhi-Kolkata-Chennai-Mumbai-Delhi circuit; includes a North-South Corridor connecting Kashmir to Kanyakumari, and a similar East-West Corridor connecting Silchar (Assam) to Saurashtra (Porbandar, Gujarat).

Hence, statement 1 is incorrect.

Under the Look East Policy of India, the trilateral highway stretching over 1,400 kilometres will connect the Indian city of Moreh in Manipur to Thailand’s Mae Sot (located on the border of Thailand and Myanmar, while Chiang Mai is located in the interior of Thailand) via Myanmar. This project aims to establish smooth connectivity and improve economic cooperation between India, Myanmar, and Thailand.

Hence, statement 2 is incorrect.

The 2800 km BCIM corridor proposes to link Kunming in China’s Yunnan province with Kolkata, passing through nodes such as Mandalay in Myanmar and Dhaka in Bangladesh before heading to Kolkata.

Hence, statement 3 is incorrect.

10. Consider the following statements: 

Statement I: India, despite having uranium deposits, depends on coal for most of its electricity production. 

Statement II: Uranium, enriched to the extent of at least 60%, is required for the production of electricity. 

Which one of the following is correct in respect of the above statements? 

(a) Both Statement I and Statement II are correct and Statement II is the correct explanation for Statement I

(b) Both Statement I and Statement II are correct and Statement II is not the correct explanation for Statement I 

(c) Statement I is correct but Statement II is incorrect 

(d) Statement I is incorrect but Statement II is correct

10. Ans: c

Explanation: 

The major uranium deposits of the country occur in geological basins of the Singhbhum shear zone (Jharkhand), Cuddapah basin (Andhra Pradesh and Telangana), Mahadek basin (Meghalaya), Delhi Supergroup of rocks (Rajasthan) and Bhima basin (Karnataka).

Installed Generation Capacity (Fuelwise)

In India, power is generated from conventional (Thermal, Nuclear & Hydro) and renewable sources (Wind, Solar, Biomass etc.). However, major production of Electricity is achieved through coal a thermal power plant.

Hence, statement 1 is correct.

Uranium found in nature consists largely of two isotopes: U-235 and U-238. The production of energy in nuclear reactors is from the ‘fission’ or splitting of the U-235 atoms, a process which releases energy in the form of heat. Natural uranium contains 0.7% of the U-235 isotope. Most reactors are light water reactors (of two types- PWR and BWR) and require uranium to be enriched from 0.7% to 3-5% U-235 in their fuel. This is normal low-enriched uranium (LEU). There is some interest in taking enrichment levels to about 7% and even close to 20% for certain special power sector fuels.

Hence, statement 2 is incorrect.

11. Consider the following countries: 

1. Bulgaria 

2. Czech Republic 

3. Hungary 

4. Latvia 

5. Lithuania 

6. Romania 

How many of the above-mentioned countries share a land border with Ukraine? 

(a) Only two 

(b) Only three 

(c) Only four 

(d) Only five

11. Ans: a

Explanation:  

Ukraine shares border with seven other countries- Poland, Slovakia, Hungary, Romania, Moldova, Russia and Belarus.

Hence, option a is correct.

12. With reference to the Earth’s atmosphere, which one of the following statements is/are correct? 

(a) The total amount of insolation received at the equator is roughly about 10 times of that received at the poles. 

(b) Infrared rays constitute roughly two-thirds of insolation. 

(c) Infrared waves are largely absorbed by water vapour that is concentrated in the lower atmosphere. 

(d) Infrared waves are a part of visible spectrum of electromagnetic waves of solar radiation.

12. Ans: c

Explanation:

Maximum insolation is over the subtropical deserts as the cloudiness is the least here. The insolation received at the surface varies from about 320 watts/m2 in the tropics to about 70 watts/m2 in the poles. The Equator receives comparatively less insolation even than the tropics (less than 320 watts/m2). So, even if the insolation is greater at the equator than at the poles, it’s not 10 times larger. 

Hence, statement 1 is incorrect.

Insolation includes a broad spectrum of electromagnetic radiation in the form of visible light, ultraviolet (UV) radiation, and other wavelengths as well. While infrared radiation is a significant component of solar radiation, it does not account for two-thirds of the insolation. 

Hence, statement 2 is incorrect.

Water vapour is a potent absorber of infrared radiation, particularly in certain wavelength bands. In the lower atmosphere, where water vapour concentration is relatively higher, it absorbs a significant amount of infrared radiation emitted by the Earth’s surface. This absorption contributes to the greenhouse effect and plays a crucial role in regulating the Earth’s temperature.

Hence, statement 3 is correct.

Infrared waves and visible light waves form the different parts of the electromagnetic spectrum. The visible spectrum ranges from around 400 to 700 nanometers and includes the colours we perceive. Infrared radiation, on the other hand, has longer wavelengths than visible light and is not visible to the human eye. It lies just beyond the red end of the visible spectrum and is typically divided into near-infrared, mid-infrared, and far-infrared regions based on wavelength. 

Hence, statement 4 is incorrect.

13. Consider the following statements: 

Statement I: The temperature contrast between continents and oceans is greater during summer than in winter. 

Statements II: The specific heat of water is more than that of land surface. 

Which one of the following is correct in respect of the above statements? 

(a) Both Statement I and Statement II are correct and Statement II is the correct explanation for Statement I

(b) Both Statement I and Statement II are correct and Statement II is not the correct explanation for Statement I 

(c) Statement I is correct but Statement II is incorrect 

(d) Statement I is incorrect but Statement II is correct

13. Ans: d

Explanation:

In summer, the continents manufacture warm rather than cold air, and there is much less contrast between temperatures than in winter.

Hence, statement 1 is incorrect.

Specific heat is the amount of heat energy required to raise the temperature of a substance by a certain amount. Water has a relatively high specific heat compared to land surfaces. This means that it takes a larger amount of heat energy to raise the temperature of water compared to an equal mass of land surface material by the same amount. The high specific heat of water is due to its molecular structure and the presence of hydrogen bonding, which allows water to absorb and store a significant amount of heat energy. Land surfaces are heated more quickly than water surfaces because of the higher specific heat of water. In other words, it requires only one-third as much energy to raise the temperature of a given volume of land by 1⁰F as it does for an equal volume of water.   

Hence, statement 2 is correct. 

14. Consider the following statements: 

1. In a seismograph, P waves are recorded earlier than S waves. 

2. In P waves, the individual particles vibrate to and fro in the direction of wave propagation whereas in S waves, the particles vibrate up and down at right angles to the direction of wave propagation. 

Which of the statements given above is\are correct? 

(a) 1 only 

(b) 2 only 

(c) Both 1 and 2 

(d) Neither 1 nor 2

14. Ans: c

Explanation:

The variations in the direction of waves are inferred with the help of their record on seismography. There are two types of body waves. They are called P and S-waves. P-waves move faster and are the first to arrive at the surface. These are also called ‘primary waves’. They travel through gaseous, liquid and solid materials. S-waves arrive at the surface with some time lag. These are called secondary waves. They can travel only through solid materials. The surface waves are the last to report on seismography. 

Hence, statement 1 is correct.

Different types of earthquake waves travel in different manners. As they move or propagate, they cause vibration in the body of the rocks through which they pass. P-waves vibrate parallel to the direction of the wave. As a result, it creates density differences in the material leading to stretching and squeezing of the material. The direction of vibrations of S-waves is perpendicular to the wave direction in the vertical plane. Hence, they create troughs and crests in the material through which they pass.

Hence, statement 2 is correct.

15. With reference to coal-based thermal power plants in India, consider the following statements: 

1. None of them uses seawater. 

2. None of them is set up in water-stressed district. 

3. None of them is privately owned. 

How many of the above statements are correct? 

(a) Only one 

(b) Only two 

(c) All three 

(d) None

15. Ans: d

Explanation:

The Mundra Thermal Power Plant employs a closed-cycle induced draft circulating cooling water system that utilises seawater. Seawater is drawn from the Gulf of Kutch through robust glass-reinforced pipes of significant diameter. In addition, purified seawater from a reverse osmosis plant is utilised by various supplementary systems.

Hence, statement 1 is incorrect.

According to recent research by WRI (World Resources Institute), 40 per cent of India’s thermal power plants are situated in regions experiencing significant water stress. This poses a challenge as these plants rely on water for cooling purposes. The scarcity of water is already causing disruptions in electricity generation in these areas, with 14 out of India’s 20 largest thermal utilities having experienced at least one shutdown between 2013 and 2016 due to water shortages. These shutdowns have resulted in significant financial losses, amounting to $1.4 billion for the affected companies.

Hence, statement 2 is incorrect.

India has a total of 269 Thermal Power Plants, with 138 of them being owned by the public sector and the remaining 131 owned by the private sector.

Hence, statement 3 is incorrect.